Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client in an outpatient facility who has been taking Acarbose for type 2 Diabetes Mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to monitor?

• A. WBC
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Platelet count
• D. Liver function test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Liver function test. Acarbose can cause liver toxicity when taken long-term. Monitoring liver function tests periodically is essential to assess for any potential liver damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Acarbose does not directly impact white blood cell count, serum potassium levels, or platelet count.

2. A client has a new prescription for Bisacodyl. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication before bedtime.
• B. Expect a rapid heart rate.
• C. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
• D. Expect rectal burning with the suppository form.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement to include when educating a client about Bisacodyl is to expect rectal burning with the suppository form. Bisacodyl, a stimulant laxative, is known to cause rectal burning when administered as a suppository. This side effect is common and expected, and it is important for the client to be aware of it to prevent unnecessary alarm or concern. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Taking Bisacodyl before bedtime is not a common instruction; expecting a rapid heart rate is not a typical side effect of Bisacodyl; and increasing intake of high-sodium foods is not related to the use of Bisacodyl.

3. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

• A. Mexiletine
• B. Amiodarone
• C. Quinidine
• D. Procainamide

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Procainamide is a class IA antiarrhythmic drug that acts as a sodium channel blocker by blocking fast sodium channels. Mexiletine is a class IB antiarrhythmic drug, not class IA. Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic, and Quinidine is a class IA antiarrhythmic but not a sodium channel blocker.

4. A client with early Parkinson's disease has been prescribed pramipexole. What adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?

• A. Hallucinations
• B. Increased salivation
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Discoloration of urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hallucinations. Pramipexole can lead to hallucinations within 9 months of the initial dose, which may necessitate discontinuation of the medication. Monitoring for hallucinations is crucial to ensure early detection and management to prevent any adverse outcomes. Choice B, increased salivation, is not a common adverse effect of pramipexole. Choice C, diarrhea, is not typically associated with pramipexole use. Choice D, discoloration of urine, is not a known adverse effect of pramipexole and is not typically a concern with this medication.

5. A client is receiving discharge instructions for long-term use of Prednisone. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Stop taking the medication if you experience swelling.
• B. The provider will monitor your weight regularly.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. You may notice decreased appetite while on this medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because long-term use of Prednisone can lead to weight gain, necessitating regular weight monitoring by the healthcare provider to manage any potential complications. Prednisone often causes fluid retention, leading to weight gain, hence the need for weight monitoring. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because swelling is not a typical reason to stop Prednisone, taking it on an empty stomach is not usually required, and Prednisone commonly increases appetite rather than decreases it.

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