Nursing Elites

1. A client is being taught about a new prescription for Escitalopram to treat generalized anxiety disorder. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take the medication with food.
• B. I will monitor my blood sugar levels while taking this medication.
• C. I need to discontinue this medication slowly.
• D. I can crush this medication before swallowing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When discontinuing Escitalopram, the client should taper the medication slowly according to a prescribed dosing schedule to reduce the risk of withdrawal syndrome. Abruptly stopping the medication can lead to withdrawal symptoms, so it is important to follow the healthcare provider's instructions for gradual discontinuation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Escitalopram should not necessarily be taken with food, there is no direct correlation with blood sugar levels, and the medication should not be crushed before swallowing.

2. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. What finding should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Ototoxicity
• D. Hemorrhagic cystitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is receiving cyclophosphamide, the nurse should monitor for hemorrhagic cystitis, a severe adverse effect caused by bladder irritation. It is essential to watch for signs such as hematuria, dysuria, and urinary frequency, and promptly intervene to prevent further complications. Hypertension (Choice A) is not typically associated with cyclophosphamide use. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not a common side effect of cyclophosphamide. Ototoxicity (Choice C) is more commonly associated with medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics or high-dose aspirin.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's medication history and notes a new prescription for Enalapril. The healthcare professional should monitor the client for which of the following as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia as an adverse effect due to decreased aldosterone levels, which leads to potassium retention. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent potential complications associated with hyperkalemia. The other options, bradycardia, hypoglycemia, and hypocalcemia, are not typically associated with Enalapril use and are less likely to occur as adverse effects.

4. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored by the healthcare provider?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum glucose

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Prednisone, monitoring serum glucose levels is essential. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to hyperglycemia. Therefore, regular monitoring of serum glucose helps in detecting and managing any potential hyperglycemic effects of the medication. Monitoring serum potassium, calcium, or sodium is not typically required when a client is on Prednisone unless there are specific risk factors or concerns related to these electrolytes.

5. When caring for a school-age child with a new prescription for Atomoxetine, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Kidney toxicity
• B. Liver damage
• C. Seizure activity
• D. Adrenal insufficiency

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Liver damage. Atomoxetine can lead to liver damage as an adverse effect. Symptoms of liver damage include jaundice, upper abdominal tenderness, dark urine, and elevated liver enzymes. Monitoring for these signs is crucial when a child is on this medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Atomoxetine is not known to cause kidney toxicity, seizure activity, or adrenal insufficiency as primary adverse effects.

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