a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for escitalopram for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder which of the following statemen
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client is being taught about a new prescription for Escitalopram to treat generalized anxiety disorder. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When discontinuing Escitalopram, the client should taper the medication slowly according to a prescribed dosing schedule to reduce the risk of withdrawal syndrome. Abruptly stopping the medication can lead to withdrawal symptoms, so it is important to follow the healthcare provider's instructions for gradual discontinuation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Escitalopram should not necessarily be taken with food, there is no direct correlation with blood sugar levels, and the medication should not be crushed before swallowing.

2. Which of the following drugs is associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe skin reaction that can be associated with Ethosuximide.

3. A client has a new prescription for Enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the medication into the abdomen. Enoxaparin is a medication that is administered subcutaneously, typically in the abdomen to ensure proper absorption. Massaging the injection site should be avoided as it can lead to bruising or bleeding under the skin. Aspirating before injecting the medication is not necessary for subcutaneous injections like Enoxaparin. Administering the medication via intramuscular injection is incorrect as Enoxaparin should be given subcutaneously.

4. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Nifedipine?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker primarily used in the management of angina and hypertension. It is not typically used to treat arrhythmias or fluid retention. Angina is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, and hypertension is high blood pressure. Therefore, fluid retention is the condition that is not treated with Nifedipine.

5. A healthcare professional is caring for a group of clients receiving antimicrobial therapy. Which of the following clients should the professional plan to monitor for manifestations of antibiotic toxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An older adult client with prostatitis who is receiving antibiotics should be monitored for toxicity due to age-related reductions in medication metabolism and excretion. Older adults are more susceptible to antibiotic toxicity, making them a high-risk group for adverse effects.

Similar Questions

The client makes which statement about lifestyle changes to reduce the development and progression of coronary artery disease that indicates the need for further teaching?
A client has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A client has a new prescription for Labetalol. Which of the following instructions should be included?
A preschooler weighing 44 lb is to receive Amoxicillin 20 mg/kg/day PO divided equally every 12 hr. The available amoxicillin suspension is 250 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?
A client has a new prescription for Ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Access More Features

ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses