Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Brimonidine ophthalmic drops and wears soft contact lenses. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. This medication can stain your contacts.
• B. This medication can cause your pupils to constrict.
• C. This medication can absorb into your contacts.
• D. This medication can slow your heart rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is that Brimonidine can absorb into soft contact lenses. To prevent this, the client should remove the contacts, instill the medication, and wait at least 15 minutes before putting the contacts back in to avoid any potential absorption of the medication into the lenses. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Brimonidine is not known to stain contacts, cause pupil constriction, or slow heart rate.

2. A healthcare professional is educating clients in an outpatient facility about the use of Insulin to treat type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. For which of the following types of insulin should the professional inform the clients to expect a peak effect 1 to 5 hr after administration?

• A. Insulin glargine
• B. NPH insulin
• C. Regular insulin
• D. Insulin lispro

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Regular insulin typically exhibits a peak effect approximately 1 to 5 hours after administration. It is important for clients to be aware of this timing to ensure optimal management of their blood glucose levels. Insulin glargine, NPH insulin, and Insulin lispro have different onset and peak times compared to Regular insulin. Insulin glargine has a slow, steady release with no pronounced peak, NPH insulin peaks around 4 to 12 hours after administration, and Insulin lispro has a rapid onset and a peak effect around 0.5 to 2.5 hours after administration. Therefore, Regular insulin is the correct choice for a peak effect within the specified time frame.

3. A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Weight gain
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A: Dry cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. If the client experiences this side effect, it is important to notify the healthcare provider for assessment and possible medication adjustment.

4. A client is starting therapy with filgrastim. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Bone pain
• B. Constipation
• C. Tinnitus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is starting therapy with filgrastim, monitoring for bone pain is essential. Filgrastim can lead to increased bone marrow activity, resulting in bone pain as a common adverse effect. Instructing the client to monitor and report any bone pain promptly can help in managing this side effect effectively.

5. A client presents in the Emergency Department with chest pain. Which of the following conditions is least likely to cause chest pain?

• A. Arthritis
• B. Peptic ulcer disease
• C. Myocardial infarction
• D. Gastric reflux

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Arthritis is a condition primarily affecting the joints and is not known to cause chest pain. Peptic ulcer disease, myocardial infarction, and gastric reflux are conditions that can present with chest pain due to various reasons such as inflammation, ischemia, or reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus, respectively.

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