Nursing Elites

1. What is the expected pharmacological action of propranolol?

• A. Block stimulation of beta1 receptors
• B. Alter water and electrolyte transport in the large intestine
• C. Block stimulation of beta2 receptors
• D. Both A and C are correct

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Propranolol exerts its pharmacological action by blocking stimulation of both beta1 and beta2 receptors. By doing so, it leads to decreased heart rate and blood pressure. Therefore, both options A and C are correct as propranolol affects both types of beta receptors. Choice B is incorrect as propranolol does not alter water and electrolyte transport in the large intestine.

2. A hospitalized client has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) greater than 1.5 times the expected reference range. Which of the following blood products should be prepared for transfusion?

• A. Whole blood
• B. Platelets
• C. Fresh frozen plasma
• D. Packed red blood cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is the appropriate blood product for a client with an elevated aPTT as it contains various coagulation factors that can help correct coagulopathies and prevent bleeding. Elevated aPTT indicates a deficiency in specific clotting factors, and fresh frozen plasma is rich in these factors. Whole blood, platelets, and packed red blood cells do not contain the necessary coagulation factors to correct an elevated aPTT, so they are not indicated in this situation.

3. A client's plasma Lithium level is 2.1 mEq/L. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Perform immediate gastric lavage.
• B. Prepare the client for hemodialysis.
• C. Administer an additional oral dose of lithium.
• D. Request a stat repeat of the laboratory test.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a plasma lithium level of 2.1 mEq/L, immediate gastric lavage is appropriate for severe toxicity. Gastric lavage can help lower the client's lithium level by removing the unabsorbed lithium from the stomach.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse notes a flushing of the neck and tachycardia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Document that the client experienced an anaphylactic reaction to the medication.
• B. Change the IV infusion site.
• C. Decrease the infusion rate on the IV.
• D. Apply cold compresses to the neck area.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flushing and tachycardia are signs of Red Man Syndrome, which can be mitigated by decreasing the infusion rate.

5. A client is prescribed Omeprazole for managing heartburn. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. This medication decreases the production of gastric acid.
• C. Take this medication 2 hours after eating.
• D. This medication can cause hyperkalemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should educate the client that Omeprazole works by reducing the production of gastric acid through inhibiting the enzyme responsible for its production. This action helps in managing heartburn and related symptoms effectively. Choice A is incorrect because Omeprazole is usually taken before eating. Choice C is incorrect as Omeprazole is typically taken before a meal. Choice D is unrelated to Omeprazole, as it is not associated with causing hyperkalemia.

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