Nursing Elites

1. A client had a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse verify with the provider?

• A. Administer enoxaparin 30 mg subcutaneously every 12 hr
• B. Place a wedge or pillow between the client's legs when turning.
• C. Instruct the client to restrict flexion of the hip past 120�.
• D. Encourage the client to perform foot and calf exercises every 2 hr

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following a total hip arthroplasty, the client should be instructed to restrict hip flexion past 90 degrees to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis. Restricting flexion past 120 degrees is excessive and could lead to complications. Therefore, the nurse should verify this prescription with the provider to ensure the client's safety and proper postoperative care.

2. When orienting a new client and family to the inpatient unit, what information should the nurse provide to help the client promote their own safety?

• A. Encourage the client and family to be active partners.
• B. Instruct the client to monitor hand hygiene in caregivers.
• C. Offer the family the opportunity to stay with the client.
• D. Advise the client to always wear their armband.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client and family to be active partners in their healthcare is crucial for promoting safety. When clients and families actively participate, they are more likely to advocate for themselves, ask questions, and be engaged in their care, leading to better outcomes and reduced risks.

3. A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Apneustic respirations
• C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

4. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client following a thoracentesis. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following manifestations as a complication and contact the provider immediately?

• A. Serosanguineous drainage from the puncture site
• B. Discomfort at the puncture site
• C. Increased heart rate
• D. Decreased temperature

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following a thoracentesis, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to monitor for potential complications. Increased heart rate can indicate hypovolemia or other serious issues, such as bleeding or pneumothorax, and requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Serosanguineous drainage from the puncture site is a common expected finding post-procedure. Discomfort at the puncture site is also common and can be managed with appropriate interventions. Decreased temperature is not typically associated with complications following a thoracentesis. Therefore, the correct answer is increased heart rate as it signifies a potential serious complication that needs prompt medical evaluation.

5. A nurse is assessing a client for a suspected anaphylactic reaction following a CT scan with contrast media. For which of the following client findings should the nurse intervene first?

• A. Urticaria
• B. Stridor
• C. Vomiting
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

Similar Questions