Nursing Elites

1. A client presents with shortness of breath, pain in the lung area, and a recent history of starting birth control pills and smoking. Vital signs include a heart rate of 110/min, respiratory rate of 40/min, and blood pressure of 140/80 mm Hg. Arterial blood gases reveal pH 7.50, PaCO2 29 mm Hg, PaO2 60 mm Hg, HCO3 20 mEq/L, and SaO2 86%. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Prepare for mechanical ventilation.
• B. Administer oxygen via face mask.
• C. Prepare to administer a sedative.
• D. Assess for indications of pulmonary embolism.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a high respiratory rate, low PaO2, and low SaO2, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen via a face mask will help increase the oxygen supply to the client's lungs and tissues, addressing the hypoxemia. While mechanical ventilation may be necessary in severe cases, administering oxygen is the initial and most appropriate intervention to address the client's respiratory distress. Sedatives should not be given without ensuring adequate oxygenation. Assessing for pulmonary embolism is important but not the priority at this moment when the client is experiencing respiratory distress and hypoxemia.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a fracture of the femur. Vital signs are obtained on admission and again in 2 hours. Which of the following changes in assessment should indicate to the healthcare professional that the client could be developing a serious complication?

• A. Increased respiratory rate from 18 to 44/min
• B. Increased oral temperature from 36.6° C (97.8° F) to 37° C (98.6° F)
• C. Increased blood pressure from 112/68 to 120/72 mm Hg
• D. Increased heart rate from 68 to 72/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increased respiratory rate from 18 to 44/min is a significant change that should alert the healthcare professional to a potential serious complication. Such a drastic increase in respiratory rate may indicate respiratory distress or hypoxia, which are critical conditions requiring immediate attention. The other options show minor changes in vital signs that are within normal limits and are less likely to indicate a serious complication.

3. A client has a newly inserted chest drainage system with a water seal. Which of the following actions should be taken?

• A. Clamp the tube when the client is ambulating.
• B. Keep the collection device below the level of the client's chest.
• C. Carefully coil the tubes to prevent kinking.
• D. Position the client flat to avoid leaks in the tubing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Keeping the collection device below the level of the client's chest ensures proper drainage and prevents backflow of fluid into the patient's chest. This position allows gravity to assist in the drainage process. Clamping the tube when the client is ambulating can cause a buildup of pressure in the chest drainage system, potentially leading to complications. Carefully coiling the tubes is important to prevent obstructions and kinks that could impede the flow of drainage. Positioning the client flat may not be ideal as it could hinder proper drainage and increase the risk of leaks in the tubing.

4. A client with heart failure expresses feelings of burden and thoughts of death to a nurse. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Would you like to talk more about this?
• B. You are lucky to have such a devoted daughter.
• C. It is normal to feel as though you are a burden.
• D. Would you like to meet with the chaplain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Depression can occur in clients with heart failure, especially in older adults. When a client expresses thoughts of being a burden and death, it is crucial for the nurse to address these concerns. Offering to talk more about the client's feelings provides an opportunity for open communication and a deeper understanding of the client's emotions. Open-ended questions like the one in choice A encourage the client to express themselves freely, leading to better assessment and client-centered care. Choices B and C fail to address the client's emotional distress directly, and choice D diverts the focus without addressing the client's immediate concerns.

5. A client is on intravenous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism. The client's most recent partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 25 seconds. What action should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Decrease the heparin rate.
• B. Increase the heparin rate.
• C. No change to the heparin rate.
• D. Stop the heparin; start warfarin (Coumadin).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients on heparin therapy, a PTT value of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal range is required to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. The normal PTT range is 25 to 35 seconds. In this case, the client's PTT of 25 seconds falls below the therapeutic range, indicating that the heparin dose is insufficient. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate increasing the heparin rate to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.

Similar Questions