Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical records of a group of older adult clients. Which risk factor should the nurse identify as placing older adults at an increased risk for infections?

• A. Improved nutritional status
• B. Increased mobility
• C. Chronic conditions
• D. Lowered immune function

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lowered immune function. Older adults often experience a decline in immune function as they age, making them more vulnerable to infections. This weakened immune system can result in increased susceptibility to various pathogens. Choice A, 'Improved nutritional status,' is incorrect because good nutrition can actually help support the immune system. Choice B, 'Increased mobility,' is not directly related to an increased risk of infections. Choice C, 'Chronic conditions,' while they can contribute to a weakened immune system, do not directly address the primary risk factor for infections in older adults.

2. When reviewing the health history of an older adult with a hip fracture, what should a nurse identify as a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?

• A. Malnutrition
• B. Poor hygiene
• C. Urinary incontinence
• D. Immobility

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a risk factor for skin breakdown, which can lead to the development of pressure injuries. While malnutrition, poor hygiene, and immobility are important considerations in overall patient care, they are not specifically identified as significant risk factors for pressure injuries in this scenario.

3. During a focused assessment for a client with dysrhythmias, what indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Pulse deficit
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Bounding pulse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A pulse deficit is a crucial finding in clients with dysrhythmias as it indicates ineffective cardiac contractions. A pulse deficit occurs when the apical heart rate is faster than the radial pulse rate, suggesting that some heartbeats are not generating a pulse. This can be a sign of serious heart conditions like atrial fibrillation or heart failure. The other options, such as an increased heart rate (choice A), elevated blood pressure (choice C), and bounding pulse (choice D), do not specifically indicate ineffective cardiac contractions and are not directly associated with dysrhythmias.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication to a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication with a straw
• B. Flush the NG tube with 30 mL of water before administration
• C. Crush all medications together
• D. Mix the medication with pudding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when administering medication to a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube is to flush the NG tube with 30 mL of water before administration. Flushing the tube with water helps ensure the patency of the tube and prevents clogging. Choice A is incorrect because administering the medication with a straw is not a recommended practice for NG tube administration. Choice C is incorrect because crushing all medications together may lead to potential drug interactions. Choice D is incorrect because mixing the medication with pudding is not a standard method for administering medication through an NG tube.

5. A client is found on the floor experiencing a seizure. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Apply oxygen
• B. Place the client on their side
• C. Administer an anticonvulsant
• D. Notify the provider

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's priority action when finding a client experiencing a seizure is to place the client on their side. This action helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration, which is crucial during a seizure. Applying oxygen may be necessary after ensuring a patent airway, while administering an anticonvulsant is not within the nurse's scope of practice during an acute seizure. Notifying the provider can be done after ensuring the client's immediate safety.

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