ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical records of a client with chronic heart failure. What dietary recommendation should the nurse make?
- A. Follow a 3g sodium diet.
- B. Drink at least 3 liters of fluid per day.
- C. Place the client's lower extremities on two pillows.
- D. Maintain the client's oxygen saturation at 89%.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Follow a 3g sodium diet. For clients with chronic heart failure, limiting sodium intake is crucial to prevent fluid retention and exacerbation of heart failure symptoms. High sodium intake can lead to fluid buildup, causing the heart to work harder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking excessive fluid can worsen fluid retention in heart failure, elevating the workload of the heart. Placing the client's lower extremities on two pillows is a positioning intervention to alleviate edema, not a dietary recommendation. Maintaining oxygen saturation at 89% is more related to respiratory status rather than dietary management of chronic heart failure.
2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic pancreatitis. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Baked chicken
- B. Grilled salmon
- C. Steamed broccoli
- D. Fried foods
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients with chronic pancreatitis should avoid fried foods because they are high in fat, which can exacerbate symptoms and lead to further complications. Baked chicken (choice A), grilled salmon (choice B), and steamed broccoli (choice C) are generally healthier options and can be included in a low-fat diet suitable for individuals with chronic pancreatitis.
3. A client with hypertension is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse on managing blood pressure at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take medication at bedtime.
- B. Check blood pressure once a week.
- C. Use a blood pressure cuff that fits snugly around the arm.
- D. Stop taking medication once blood pressure is within the normal range.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use a blood pressure cuff that fits snugly around the arm.' Using a properly fitting cuff is essential for accurate blood pressure measurements. Choice A is incorrect because the timing of medication administration should be individualized and not specified in the question. Choice B is incorrect as checking blood pressure once a week may not provide sufficient monitoring for a client with hypertension. Choice D is incorrect because stopping medication abruptly once blood pressure is normal can lead to rebound hypertension and complications.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has myasthenia gravis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Increased muscle strength.
- C. Diarrhea.
- D. Decreased deep tendon reflexes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness is a common manifestation, leading to decreased deep tendon reflexes. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with myasthenia gravis. Increased muscle strength (choice B) is unlikely as muscle weakness is a hallmark of this condition. Diarrhea (choice C) is not a typical finding in myasthenia gravis.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum calcium.
- C. Serum potassium.
- D. Serum glucose.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so serum potassium should be monitored to evaluate its effectiveness. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial because spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia as a side effect. Serum sodium, serum calcium, and serum glucose levels are not directly affected by spironolactone and would not provide an accurate assessment of the medication's effectiveness.
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