ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical records of a client with chronic heart failure. What dietary recommendation should the nurse make?
- A. Follow a 3g sodium diet.
- B. Drink at least 3 liters of fluid per day.
- C. Place the client's lower extremities on two pillows.
- D. Maintain the client's oxygen saturation at 89%.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Follow a 3g sodium diet. For clients with chronic heart failure, limiting sodium intake is crucial to prevent fluid retention and exacerbation of heart failure symptoms. High sodium intake can lead to fluid buildup, causing the heart to work harder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking excessive fluid can worsen fluid retention in heart failure, elevating the workload of the heart. Placing the client's lower extremities on two pillows is a positioning intervention to alleviate edema, not a dietary recommendation. Maintaining oxygen saturation at 89% is more related to respiratory status rather than dietary management of chronic heart failure.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has depression and reports taking St. John's wort along with citalopram. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following conditions as a result of an interaction between these substances?
- A. Serotonin syndrome
- B. Tardive dyskinesia
- C. Pseudo-parkinsonism
- D. Acute dystonia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serotonin syndrome. When a client takes St. John's wort, a herbal supplement, along with citalopram, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), there is a risk of developing serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by symptoms such as confusion, agitation, fever, sweating, shivering, tremors, muscle rigidity, and in severe cases, seizures and coma. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for these symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tardive dyskinesia is associated with long-term use of antipsychotic medications, pseudo-parkinsonism is a side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, and acute dystonia is a side effect of antipsychotic medications characterized by sustained muscle contractions.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis of the left lower extremity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Position the client with the affected extremity higher than the heart
- B. Administration of acetaminophen
- C. Massage the affected extremity every 4 hours
- D. Withhold heparin IV infusion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis is to withhold heparin IV infusion. Administering heparin is crucial in managing deep vein thrombosis by preventing further clot formation. Positioning the affected extremity higher than the heart (Choice A) promotes venous return and reduces swelling. Acetaminophen (Choice B) can be given for pain relief. Massaging the affected extremity (Choice C) is contraindicated as it can dislodge a clot, leading to serious complications.
4. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about using a portable oxygen system. What instruction should the nurse include?
- A. The oxygen should be kept in a storage room when not in use.
- B. Turn off the oxygen when not in use.
- C. Check the oxygen level regularly using a pulse oximeter.
- D. Never leave the oxygen running when transporting a client.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the oxygen level regularly using a pulse oximeter. This instruction is crucial as it ensures safe and adequate oxygenation for the client. Option A is incorrect as oxygen should not be stored in a storage room but in a well-ventilated area. Option B is not ideal as oxygen should be left on unless otherwise specified by a healthcare provider. Option D is also important but not directly related to the primary instruction of monitoring oxygen levels.
5. In an emergency department following a community disaster, a healthcare provider is performing triage for multiple clients. To which of the following types of injuries should the provider assign the highest priority?
- A. Below-the-knee amputation.
- B. Fractured tibia.
- C. 95% full-thickness body burn.
- D. 10 cm laceration to the forearm.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During disaster triage, clients with severe injuries that are immediately life-threatening and have a high likelihood of mortality without intervention are assigned the highest priority. A below-the-knee amputation falls into this category as it indicates a critical injury that requires immediate attention to prevent further complications or loss of life. Fractured tibia, a 95% full-thickness body burn, and a 10 cm laceration to the forearm, while serious, do not pose the same level of immediate life-threatening risk as a below-the-knee amputation in the context of disaster triage.
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