ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is prescribed acetaminophen for pain. Which of the following lab values should the nurse monitor to identify an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Serum glucose
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. Serum potassium
- D. Serum bilirubin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum creatinine. Acetaminophen is metabolized by the liver, so serum creatinine levels should be monitored for potential hepatotoxicity. Monitoring serum creatinine can help detect liver damage, a potential adverse effect of acetaminophen. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because serum glucose is not directly affected by acetaminophen, serum potassium is not typically monitored for acetaminophen adverse effects, and serum bilirubin is more related to bile metabolism rather than acetaminophen-induced hepatotoxicity.
2. A client has been prescribed metoclopramide. Which of the following should the nurse include in client education regarding this medication?
- A. Notify your provider if you experience restlessness or spasms of the face or neck
- B. This medication can cause insomnia
- C. Decrease your fluid intake while taking this medication
- D. This medication can cause urinary frequency
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Notify your provider if you experience restlessness or spasms of the face or neck.' Metoclopramide can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms such as restlessness or facial spasms, which are serious and require immediate medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Insomnia is not a common side effect of metoclopramide. Increasing fluid intake is usually recommended to prevent dehydration caused by potential side effects like diarrhea. Urinary frequency is not a typical side effect associated with metoclopramide.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer ondansetron to a client. Which of the following therapeutic effects should the nurse expect from this medication?
- A. Decreased nausea
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Increased heart rate
- D. Relief of headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased nausea. Ondansetron is classified as an antiemetic medication, which means it is used to relieve nausea and vomiting by blocking serotonin in the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Therefore, the nurse administering ondansetron should expect a therapeutic effect of decreased nausea. Choice B, increased appetite, is incorrect as ondansetron does not affect appetite. Choice C, increased heart rate, is incorrect as ondansetron does not have a direct effect on heart rate. Choice D, relief of headache, is also incorrect as the primary therapeutic effect of ondansetron is to alleviate nausea and vomiting, not headaches.
4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the client's history before administering opioid pain medication. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication to opioid therapy?
- A. Asthma
- B. Renal failure
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Obesity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Renal failure is a contraindication to opioid therapy due to the risk of drug accumulation and toxicity. Asthma, diabetes mellitus, and obesity are not contraindications to opioid therapy. Asthma is a respiratory condition that can be managed alongside opioids, diabetes mellitus and obesity do not directly contraindicate opioid therapy.
5. A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse notes flushing of the client's neck and chest. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Stop the infusion
- B. Document the findings as a harmless reaction
- C. Slow the infusion rate
- D. Administer diphenhydramine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client receiving IV vancomycin shows flushing of the neck and chest is to slow the infusion rate. Flushing is a common sign of Red Man Syndrome, which is associated with rapid infusions of vancomycin. Slowing down the infusion rate can help prevent further flushing and the development of Red Man Syndrome. Stopping the infusion (Choice A) may be too drastic if the symptoms are mild and can be managed by slowing the rate. Documenting the findings as a harmless reaction (Choice B) is incorrect because flushing should be addressed promptly to prevent complications. Administering diphenhydramine (Choice D) is not the initial or best intervention for flushing associated with vancomycin; slowing the infusion rate is the priority.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access