Nursing Elites

1. A client prescribed hydromorphone for severe pain has a decreased respiratory rate from 16 breaths per minute to 6. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Flumazenil
• B. Naloxone
• C. Activated charcoal
• D. Aluminum hydroxide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Naloxone is the correct answer as it is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression. Hydromorphone is an opioid medication that can cause respiratory depression at high doses. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that competes with opioids at receptor sites, reversing the effects of opioids like hydromorphone. Flumazenil (Choice A) is a benzodiazepine antagonist used for benzodiazepine overdose, not opioid overdose. Activated charcoal (Choice C) is used for toxin ingestion to prevent absorption in the gastrointestinal tract, but it is not indicated for opioid overdose. Aluminum hydroxide (Choice D) is an antacid and would not be the appropriate intervention for respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose.

2. A client with an artificial heart valve is prescribed warfarin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of warfarin?

• A. Hemoglobin (Hgb)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT). Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the clotting factors dependent on vitamin K, such as factors II, VII, IX, and X. The prothrombin time (PT) measures the extrinsic pathway and is used to monitor the therapeutic effects of warfarin therapy. Monitoring PT helps assess the time it takes for the blood to clot, ensuring that the anticoagulant effect is within the desired range. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hemoglobin (Hgb) measures the amount of hemoglobin in the blood, bleeding time assesses the time it takes for bleeding to stop, and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin therapy.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer potassium chloride IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent complications?

• A. Administer the medication by IV bolus over 2 minutes
• B. Infuse the medication slowly using an IV pump
• C. Add the medication to an IV solution of D5W
• D. Dilute the medication in 5 mL of sterile water

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to prevent complications when administering potassium chloride IV is to infuse the medication slowly using an IV pump. Rapid administration of potassium chloride can lead to complications such as hyperkalemia and cardiac arrest. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not promote the safe administration of potassium chloride. Administering the medication by IV bolus over 2 minutes is too rapid and can cause adverse effects. Adding the medication to an IV solution of D5W or diluting it in sterile water may not control the rate of administration, increasing the risk of complications.

4. A nurse is caring for a client newly prescribed doxazosin mesylate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in client education regarding taking the first dose of this medication?

• A. Change positions slowly and lie down if dizziness occurs
• B. There is no need to avoid normal activities
• C. Avoid dairy products while taking this medication
• D. Do not eat green leafy vegetables

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: First-dose orthostatic hypotension can occur with doxazosin. The nurse should advise the client to change positions slowly and lie down if dizziness occurs. Choice B is incorrect because it does not address the potential side effect of dizziness. Choice C and D are also incorrect as there is no specific dietary restriction related to doxazosin mesylate.

5. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed clopidogrel. Which of the following client histories is a contraindication to the administration of this medication?

• A. Recent surgery
• B. Peptic ulcer disease
• C. Bleeding disorder
• D. Uncontrolled hypertension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Uncontrolled hypertension. Clopidogrel should not be administered to clients with uncontrolled hypertension due to the increased risk of bleeding. Recent surgery, peptic ulcer disease, and bleeding disorders are not absolute contraindications for clopidogrel administration.

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