a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine which finding should the nurse identify as a contrai
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ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine. Which finding should the healthcare provider identify as a contraindication to the administration of clozapine?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: a low WBC count. Clozapine can suppress bone marrow function, leading to a decreased white blood cell count. This condition, known as agranulocytosis, increases the risk of severe infections. Monitoring WBC counts is essential during clozapine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and are not contraindications for administering clozapine.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Chicken breast. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Foods high in potassium, like spinach and yogurt, should be avoided when taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalemia. Chicken breast, being a low-potassium protein source, is a suitable recommendation for clients on spironolactone therapy.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the healthcare professional review before administering the medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Before administering enoxaparin, it is essential to review potassium levels to monitor for potential imbalances. Enoxaparin, a type of anticoagulant, does not directly affect PT, INR, or platelet count. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the medication. PT and INR are typically used to monitor warfarin therapy, while platelet count is essential for assessing clotting function but is not directly related to enoxaparin administration.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week can indicate worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention, which can lead to serious complications. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further assessment and intervention. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is high but may not be an immediate concern for a client with preeclampsia at 30 weeks. 1+ pitting edema in the lower extremities is common in pregnancy, especially in the third trimester, and may not be a significant finding in isolation. A mild headache can be a common symptom in pregnancy and may not be indicative of worsening preeclampsia unless accompanied by other concerning signs.

5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Canned soup. Canned soups are typically high in sodium, which can lead to fluid retention in clients with chronic kidney disease. Sodium restriction is crucial in managing this condition. Choice A, baked chicken, is a lean protein source that is generally recommended for individuals with kidney disease. Bananas (Choice B) are high in potassium, so clients with kidney disease may need to limit their intake depending on their individual treatment plan. Lean cuts of beef (Choice C) can be a good source of protein and iron for clients with kidney disease as long as portion sizes are controlled to manage protein intake.

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