ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine. Which finding should the healthcare provider identify as a contraindication to the administration of clozapine?
- A. Heart rate 58/min.
- B. Fasting blood glucose 100 mg/dL.
- C. Hgb 14 g/dL.
- D. WBC count 2,900/mm3.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: a low WBC count. Clozapine can suppress bone marrow function, leading to a decreased white blood cell count. This condition, known as agranulocytosis, increases the risk of severe infections. Monitoring WBC counts is essential during clozapine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and are not contraindications for administering clozapine.
2. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who reports cocaine use 1 hour ago. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Hypotension.
- B. Memory loss.
- C. Slurred speech.
- D. Elevated temperature.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevated temperature. Cocaine is a stimulant drug that can lead to increased body temperature. Hypotension (Choice A) is less likely as cocaine tends to elevate blood pressure. Memory loss (Choice B) and slurred speech (Choice C) are more commonly associated with depressant drugs rather than stimulant drugs like cocaine.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.
4. A nurse is administering medications to a group of clients. Which of the following occurrences requires the completion of an incident report?
- A. A client receives antibiotics 2 hours late.
- B. A client vomits within 20 minutes of taking morning medications.
- C. A client requests a statin to be administered at 2100.
- D. A client asks for pain medication 1 hour early.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Administering antibiotics late must be reported as it can compromise the effectiveness of the treatment. This delay can lead to subtherapeutic levels of the antibiotic in the client's system, potentially reducing its efficacy in combating the infection. Choice B, a client vomiting shortly after taking medication, should be noted but does not necessarily require an incident report unless it is a frequent occurrence. It could indicate a possible adverse reaction or intolerance to the medication. Choice C, a client requesting a statin at a specific time, and choice D, a client asking for pain medication slightly earlier, do not involve medication errors or deviations that pose immediate risks to the client's health, so they do not require incident reports.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on loop diuretics?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Loop diuretics can cause potassium depletion leading to hypokalemia, which is particularly concerning as it can result in cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (choice B) is not typically associated with loop diuretics. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is less common in patients on loop diuretics. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is not a typical electrolyte imbalance associated with loop diuretics.
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