Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serum potassium 4.0 mEq/L
• B. Sodium 138 mEq/L
• C. Serum creatinine 3.8 mg/dL
• D. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. An elevated serum creatinine level can indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to report before administering enalapril. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can affect kidney function, especially in patients with pre-existing renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the initiation of enalapril therapy.

2. A client on glucocorticoid therapy is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I have my eyes examined annually.
• B. I take a calcium vitamin supplement daily.
• C. I limit my intake of foods with potassium.
• D. I consistently take my medication between 8 and 9 each evening.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking a calcium supplement daily is crucial for clients on glucocorticoid therapy to prevent osteoporosis, a common side effect of long-term use. Choice A is unrelated to glucocorticoid therapy. Choice C, limiting potassium intake, is not necessary for clients on glucocorticoids. Choice D, taking medication consistently in the evening, is important but does not specifically address the side effects of glucocorticoid therapy.

3. What is the appropriate action for a healthcare provider to take when a patient has a high fever and is disoriented?

• A. Administer acetaminophen
• B. Administer antibiotics
• C. Administer fluids
• D. Cool the patient with cold compresses

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering fluids is the appropriate action for a healthcare provider to take when a patient has a high fever and is disoriented. Dehydration can worsen confusion and other symptoms in such a situation. Administering acetaminophen or cooling the patient with cold compresses may help reduce the fever but does not address the underlying issue. Administering antibiotics is not indicated for a high fever and disorientation without knowing the cause.

4. A client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for a nonstress test is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should avoid drinking fluids during the test.
• B. I will need to drink a sugar solution before the test.
• C. This test will monitor how my baby is responding to contractions.
• D. This test will assess for fetal lung maturity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client should drink a sugar solution for a glucose challenge test, which is part of the nonstress test protocol during pregnancy. Choice A is incorrect because adequate hydration is generally recommended before the test. Choice C is incorrect as the nonstress test monitors the baby's heart rate in response to its own movements, not contractions. Choice D is incorrect as the nonstress test does not assess fetal lung maturity.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has COPD and is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 95%.
• B. Productive cough with clear sputum.
• C. Respiratory rate of 22/min.
• D. Client reports dyspnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dyspnea in a client with COPD receiving oxygen should be reported as it may indicate worsening respiratory status. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the expected range for a client receiving oxygen therapy and does not require immediate reporting. A productive cough with clear sputum is a common symptom in clients with COPD and does not necessarily warrant urgent reporting. A respiratory rate of 22/min is also within normal limits and does not raise immediate concerns in this scenario.

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