ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serum potassium 4.0 mEq/L
- B. Sodium 138 mEq/L
- C. Serum creatinine 3.8 mg/dL
- D. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. An elevated serum creatinine level can indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to report before administering enalapril. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can affect kidney function, especially in patients with pre-existing renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the initiation of enalapril therapy.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid taking this medication with antacids.
- B. Contact your provider if you experience visual changes.
- C. Increase your intake of foods high in potassium.
- D. You may experience increased urination while taking this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Contact your provider if you experience visual changes.' Visual changes, such as blurred or yellow vision, can indicate digoxin toxicity and should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin can be taken with antacids. Choice C is incorrect because increasing potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia when taking digoxin. Choice D is incorrect because increased urination is not a common side effect of digoxin.
3. What is the appropriate action for a patient experiencing chest pain?
- A. Administer aspirin
- B. Reposition the patient
- C. Check oxygen saturation
- D. Prepare for surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for a patient experiencing chest pain is to administer aspirin. Aspirin helps reduce the risk of clot formation in patients with chest pain, as it has antiplatelet effects. Repositioning the patient may not address the underlying cause of the chest pain. Checking oxygen saturation is important but not the initial priority in this scenario. Surgery is not typically the first-line treatment for chest pain without further assessment and diagnostic procedures.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Grilled chicken.
- B. Fresh fruit.
- C. White bread.
- D. Cheddar cheese.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.
5. A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level.
- B. A client who is scheduled for a procedure in 1 hr.
- C. A client who has 100 mL of fluid remaining in his IV bag.
- D. A client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A client with low blood glucose levels needs immediate assessment to ensure stabilization. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening situations that require urgent assessment. Option B can be attended to after addressing the client with low blood glucose levels. Option C can be managed based on the infusion rate and the client's condition. Option D, although important, can be assessed after ensuring the client with low blood glucose levels is stable.
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