Nursing Elites

1. When teaching a client who has a new prescription for metformin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
• C. Increase your fluid intake.
• D. Expect a metallic taste in your mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting metformin is to increase fluid intake. This is crucial to prevent gastrointestinal discomfort, a common side effect of metformin. Adequate hydration helps reduce the risk of gastrointestinal upset and ensures the medication is well-tolerated. Option A is generally true for metformin but is not as essential as maintaining proper hydration. Option B is important but not directly related to starting metformin. Option D is incorrect as a metallic taste in the mouth is not typically associated with metformin.

2. A client has a new prescription for amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor blood pressure daily.
• C. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor blood pressure daily.' When a client is prescribed amlodipine, it is essential to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Amlodipine is known to cause hypotension, so monitoring blood pressure helps ensure it stays within the desired range to prevent complications associated with low blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because amlodipine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium intake is not a specific instruction related to amlodipine. Choice D is incorrect as grapefruit juice interactions are not typically a concern with amlodipine.

3. The nurse is informed during shift report that a client is experiencing occasional ventricular dysrhythmias. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results, recalling that which electrolyte imbalance could be responsible for this development?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypochloremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart and lead to ventricular dysrhythmias. Potassium plays a crucial role in maintaining the heart's rhythm, and a deficiency can result in dangerous heart rhythm abnormalities. Hypernatremia (Choice B), which is high sodium levels, does not directly impact heart rhythm. Hypochloremia (Choice C), which is low chloride levels, is not typically associated with ventricular dysrhythmias. Hypercalcemia (Choice D), which is high calcium levels, is not a common cause of ventricular dysrhythmias.

4. A client has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor for a dry cough.
• B. Take the medication at bedtime.
• C. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• D. Take the medication with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor for a dry cough. When a client is prescribed enalapril, it is important to monitor for a dry cough because it can be a side effect that indicates a potential issue like angioedema. This side effect needs close attention as it may require discontinuation of the medication to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not need to be taken at bedtime, does not interact with grapefruit juice, and can be taken without regard to meals.

5. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.

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