ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with a potassium supplement.
- B. Avoid foods that contain potassium.
- C. Limit your fluid intake while taking this medication.
- D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium. Instructing the client to avoid foods high in potassium helps prevent hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of spironolactone. Choice A is incorrect because taking spironolactone with a potassium supplement can increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use. Choice D is also incorrect as spironolactone does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 day postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Urine output of 40 mL/hr.
- B. Heart rate of 88/min.
- C. Wound drainage of 25 mL in 24 hours.
- D. Abdominal distention and rigidity.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Abdominal distention and rigidity may indicate a postoperative complication, such as bowel obstruction or peritonitis, and should be reported to the provider. While monitoring urine output, heart rate, and wound drainage are essential postoperative assessments, they are not as concerning as abdominal distention and rigidity, which could signal a more urgent issue requiring immediate attention.
3. Which assessment finding is most concerning in a patient receiving morphine?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Respiratory depression
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, respiratory depression. When a patient is receiving morphine, respiratory depression is the most concerning side effect because it can lead to serious complications, including respiratory arrest and even death. Monitoring the patient's respiratory status is crucial to ensure early detection of any signs of respiratory depression. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because although hypotension, bradycardia, and hypertension can occur as side effects of morphine, they are not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory depression in this context.
4. A client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. Potassium 3.8 mEq/L
- C. Blood glucose 90 mg/dL
- D. Urine ketones present
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Urine ketones present. The presence of urine ketones indicates dehydration and inadequate glucose control in clients with hyperemesis gravidarum. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial for prompt intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not directly correlate with the condition of hyperemesis gravidarum. Therefore, they are not the priority values to report in this scenario.
5. A nurse is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients. Which prescription should the nurse identify as complete?
- A. Furosemide 20 mg BID
- B. Aspirin 1 tablet daily
- C. Nitroglycerin transdermal patch
- D. Metoprolol 5 mg IV now
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A complete prescription should include the medication name (Furosemide), dosage (20 mg), and administration schedule (BID - twice daily). Choice B is missing the dosage of Aspirin, choice C lacks the dosage information for Nitroglycerin, and choice D does not specify the administration schedule for Metoprolol.
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