Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for cimetidine. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare provider identify as the priority to report to the provider?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. WBC count 9,000/mm3
• C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 50 units/L
• D. Fasting glucose 105 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated AST level is indicative of liver damage, which is the priority finding to report to the provider when administering cimetidine. Elevated liver enzymes can be a sign of liver toxicity or damage. Monitoring liver function is crucial when using cimetidine, as it can sometimes lead to hepatotoxicity. The other laboratory findings are within normal ranges and not directly associated with cimetidine administration.

2. A nurse is preparing to measure a client's level of oxygen saturation and observes edema of both hands and thickened toenails. The nurse should apply the pulse oximeter probe to which of the following locations?

• A. Finger
• B. Earlobe
• C. Toe
• D. Skin fold

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client has edema of both hands and thickened toenails, these conditions can impede accurate readings from the finger and toe locations. The earlobe is the best alternative site for the pulse oximeter probe in this scenario. Placing the probe on the earlobe will help ensure a more accurate measurement of oxygen saturation despite the issues with the hands and toenails. Therefore, the correct answer is to apply the pulse oximeter probe to the earlobe. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because of the potential limitations presented by the edema and thickened toenails.

3. A nurse manager is teaching a group of employees about standards for Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN). Which of the following statements by an employee should the nurse manager identify as an example of the QSEN concept of quality improvement?

• A. We should start tracking how soon clients are discharged after laparoscopic versus open surgery.
• B. We should involve our clients' partners in care planning as much as possible.
• C. We should be sure to log out of the computers immediately following documentation.
• D. We should provide change-of-shift report as a team, including the assistive personnel who assisted with care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Involving partners in care planning is a quality improvement strategy that aligns with QSEN principles. This choice reflects patient-centered care and collaboration, which are essential elements of quality improvement. Choices A, C, and D do not directly relate to quality improvement concepts. Tracking discharge times, logging out of computers, and providing change-of-shift reports are important practices but not specifically focused on quality improvement.

4. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse verify with a provider?

• A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
• B. Hyoscyamine
• C. Oxybutynin
• D. Phenazopyridine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin can worsen urinary retention, so the nurse should verify this prescription with the provider. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Choice A) is a common antibiotic used to treat UTIs and does not require verification. Hyoscyamine (Choice B) is an anticholinergic medication used for bladder spasms and does not typically worsen UTI symptoms. Phenazopyridine (Choice D) is a urinary analgesic that helps relieve pain, burning, and discomfort caused by a UTI, which may not necessarily require verification in this scenario.

5. A nurse on a rehabilitation unit is creating a plan of care for a newly admitted client who has difficulty swallowing following a stroke. Which of the following inter-professional team members should the nurse anticipate consulting regarding the client's condition?

• A. Speech-language pathologist
• B. Occupational therapist
• C. Dietitian
• D. Pharmacy technician

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Speech-language pathologist. A speech-language pathologist specializes in evaluating and treating swallowing difficulties, known as dysphagia, which commonly occurs following a stroke. They are experts in developing strategies to help individuals improve their ability to swallow safely. Occupational therapists (B) focus on helping individuals regain independence in activities of daily living, not specifically addressing swallowing concerns. Dietitians (C) primarily work on developing appropriate nutrition plans but may not directly address swallowing issues. Pharmacy technicians (D) assist pharmacists in dispensing medications and are not directly involved in managing swallowing difficulties.

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