a nurse is assigned to care for four clients which client should the nurse assess first
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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. A nurse is assigned to care for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chest pain and shortness of breath are symptoms that could indicate a life-threatening condition such as a heart attack or pulmonary embolism. Therefore, this client should be assessed first to ensure prompt intervention and treatment. Choice B, a client with a fever of 100°F, may indicate an infection but is not immediately life-threatening compared to the symptoms of chest pain and shortness of breath. Choice C, a client scheduled for surgery, is not an immediate priority unless there are specific preoperative assessments or interventions required. Choice D, a client with stable vital signs, does not indicate an urgent need for assessment compared to the client with chest pain and shortness of breath.

2. A patient with a urinary catheter reports discomfort. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the catheter tubing is not kinked. This is the priority action because a kinked tubing can obstruct urine flow, leading to discomfort and potential complications. It is essential to troubleshoot the current catheter first before considering other interventions. Irrigating the catheter (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue of kinking. Changing the catheter to a smaller size (Choice C) or removing and replacing it with a new one (Choice D) should only be considered if ensuring the tubing is unkinked does not resolve the discomfort.

3. A nurse is monitoring a client following a thoracentesis. The nurse should identify which of the following manifestations as a complication and contact the provider immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A nurse should identify an increased heart rate as a complication following a thoracentesis and contact the provider immediately. An increased heart rate may indicate a pneumothorax or other serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because decreased temperature, serosanguineous drainage, and discomfort at the puncture site are expected findings following a thoracentesis and do not indicate a significant complication requiring immediate provider notification.

4. Which of the following is a common manifestation of opioid withdrawal?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tremors and increased blood pressure. During opioid withdrawal, individuals commonly experience symptoms such as tremors, increased blood pressure, and restlessness. Choice A, which suggests bradycardia and hypotension, is incorrect as opioid withdrawal often leads to tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and increased blood pressure. Choice C, severe muscle weakness and fatigue, is not a typical manifestation of opioid withdrawal. Choice D, severe hallucinations and delusions, is more characteristic of conditions like delirium tremens associated with alcohol withdrawal, rather than opioid withdrawal.

5. A nurse in the PACU is caring for a client who has received general anesthesia and has a manifestation of malignant hyperthermia. The nurse should expect to administer which of the following medications?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Dantrolene is the medication of choice to treat malignant hyperthermia, a life-threatening reaction to general anesthesia. It works by inhibiting the release of calcium ions in skeletal muscle cells, preventing muscle contracture and hypermetabolism. Acetaminophen (Choice A) and ibuprofen (Choice B) are not indicated for treating malignant hyperthermia. Diazepam (Choice D) may be used to control muscle spasms but is not the first-line treatment for malignant hyperthermia.

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