a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of myocardial infarction which of the following findings should the nurse report
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ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of myocardial infarction. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a history of myocardial infarction, a respiratory rate of 16/min should be reported to the provider. Changes in respiratory rate can indicate cardiac or pulmonary issues that need further evaluation. The other vital signs provided (blood pressure, heart rate, and LDL cholesterol level) are within normal limits and do not directly relate to potential complications following a myocardial infarction.

2. A nurse is providing care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for a nurse caring for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by low platelet count, which can lead to bleeding problems. Providing a stool softener helps prevent constipation, which in turn prevents straining during bowel movements, reducing the risk of bleeding. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is more related to infection control rather than managing thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is not directly linked to managing thrombocytopenia.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct finding the nurse should report to the provider is decreased breath sounds in the right lower lobe. This can indicate a respiratory infection or atelectasis in clients with COPD, requiring further evaluation and intervention. Choice A, an oxygen saturation of 91%, although slightly lower than normal, does not necessarily require immediate reporting unless the client's baseline is significantly higher. Choice B, the use of pursed-lip breathing, is actually a beneficial technique for clients with COPD to improve oxygenation and reduce shortness of breath, so it does not need reporting. Choice C, a productive cough with green sputum, can be common in clients with COPD and may indicate an infection, but it is not as concerning as decreased breath sounds in a specific lung lobe which may signify a more acute issue.

4. A nurse in a mental health unit is planning room assignments for four clients. Which of the following clients should be closest to the nurse's station?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client with bipolar disorder and impaired social interactions should be placed closest to the nurse's station for closer monitoring. Clients with bipolar disorder may experience mood swings, including manic episodes that can lead to impulsive behaviors or aggression. Placing such a client near the nurse's station allows for quick intervention and monitoring of their social interactions, especially if they are impaired. The other options, such as anxiety disorder, somatic symptom disorder, and depressive disorder, do not inherently require immediate proximity to the nurse's station based on the information provided.

5. A client with a pulmonary embolism is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering anticoagulants as prescribed is a crucial intervention for clients with pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently may dislodge the clot and lead to worsening symptoms. Placing the client in a prone position can compromise respiratory function. Initiating seizure precautions is not directly related to the management of pulmonary embolism.

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