a nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who is scheduled for surgery and takes warfarin daily which of the following laboratory results s
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical history of a client who is scheduled for surgery and takes Warfarin daily. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the most important lab value to monitor in a client taking warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and the INR reflects the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications.

2. What should you assess for in a patient who is on Valproate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Suicidal thoughts. When a patient is prescribed Valproate, it is crucial to assess for suicidal thoughts as it is a serious side effect associated with this medication. Valproate has been linked to an increased risk of suicidal ideation and behavior, particularly in patients with epilepsy or bipolar disorder. Monitoring for signs of depression or changes in behavior is essential to ensure patient safety and well-being. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while monitoring for seizures, managing bipolar disorder, and treating migraines are also important considerations when a patient is on Valproate, assessing for suicidal thoughts takes priority due to the serious nature of this potential side effect.

3. Which of the following diuretics inhibits sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while sparing K+ and hydrogen ions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spironolactone is the correct answer as it is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while promoting the retention of potassium and hydrogen ions. This mechanism of action helps in reducing fluid retention without causing excessive loss of potassium, which is a common side effect of other diuretics. Furosemide (choice B), Hydrochlorothiazide (choice C), and Bumetanide (choice D) are not correct as they are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide and Bumetanide are loop diuretics that inhibit sodium, potassium, and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to potassium loss.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer heparin 15,000 units subcutaneously every 12 hr. The amount available is heparin injection 20,000 units/mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer per dose?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: (Desired dose / Concentration) = Volume to administer. In this case, (15,000 units / 20,000 units/mL) = 0.75 mL, which is rounded up to 0.8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 0.8 mL per dose of heparin. Choice B (0.75 mL) is incorrect as it is the exact calculated volume but needs to be rounded up. Choices C (0.5 mL) and D (1 mL) are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculated volume for the desired dose of heparin.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Furosemide to a client with heart failure. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Furosemide, when administered intravenously, should be given slowly over 2 minutes to reduce the risk of ototoxicity, a known adverse effect of rapid infusion. This method allows for better monitoring of the client's response and decreases the likelihood of adverse reactions associated with a faster administration rate.

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