Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with patients on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide use due to its mechanism of action in the kidneys. Hyponatremia (choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not common electrolyte imbalances seen with furosemide use.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?

• A. Calcium level of 9.0 mg/dL
• B. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• C. Respiratory rate of 18/min
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched sound that indicates airway obstruction and is the priority finding to report following a thyroidectomy. In this situation, airway compromise is a critical concern that requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. While calcium level (Choice A) and serum sodium level (Choice B) are important assessments post-thyroidectomy, they do not represent an immediate threat to the client's airway. A respiratory rate of 18/min (Choice C) falls within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate risk to the client's airway compared to the presence of stridor.

3. What is the first intervention for a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock?

• A. Administer epinephrine
• B. Administer oxygen
• C. Administer corticosteroids
• D. Administer antihistamines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock as it helps reverse the severe allergic reaction by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening airways for improved breathing. Oxygen (Choice B) can be administered after epinephrine to support oxygenation. Corticosteroids (Choice C) may be used to prevent a biphasic reaction but are not the initial intervention. Antihistamines (Choice D) can help with itching and hives but do not address the life-threatening symptoms of anaphylaxis.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has septic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Temperature of 38°C (100.4°F).
• B. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr.
• C. Heart rate of 92/min.
• D. Capillary refill time of 2 seconds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urinary output of 40 mL/hr is below the expected range and should be reported to the provider as it may indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to monitor in a client with septic shock. Choices A, C, and D are within acceptable ranges for a client with septic shock and do not indicate immediate concerns. A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) is slightly elevated but can be expected in septic shock. A heart rate of 92/min is within the normal range for an adult. A capillary refill time of 2 seconds is also normal, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion.

5. What is the initial nursing action for a patient presenting with chest pain?

• A. Administer aspirin
• B. Reposition the patient
• C. Provide pain relief
• D. Prepare for surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial nursing action for a patient presenting with chest pain is to administer aspirin. Aspirin helps reduce the risk of further clot formation in patients experiencing chest pain, as it has antiplatelet effects. Repositioning the patient, providing pain relief, or preparing for surgery are not the first-line interventions for chest pain. Repositioning the patient may be necessary to ensure comfort and safety, pain relief can be provided after further assessment and diagnostic tests, and preparing for surgery would only be considered after a thorough evaluation and confirmation of the need for surgical intervention.

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