ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with patients on furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide use due to its mechanism of action in the kidneys. Hyponatremia (choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not common electrolyte imbalances seen with furosemide use.
2. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient receiving heparin therapy?
- A. Monitor aPTT
- B. Monitor platelet count
- C. Monitor sodium levels
- D. Monitor calcium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. aPTT monitoring is essential for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, ensuring the patient is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding. Monitoring platelet count (Choice B) is important for assessing for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary monitoring parameter for heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice C) and calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly related to assessing the therapeutic effectiveness or potential side effects of heparin therapy.
3. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient refusing a blood transfusion for religious reasons?
- A. Respect the patient's beliefs
- B. Educate the patient on the importance of the transfusion
- C. Notify the healthcare provider
- D. Persuade the patient to accept the transfusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient refuses a blood transfusion for religious reasons, the healthcare provider should respect the patient's beliefs. It is crucial to uphold the patient's autonomy and right to make decisions about their care, even if the provider disagrees. Educating the patient on the importance of the transfusion may be appropriate in some cases, but the initial response should always be to respect the patient's decision. Notifying the healthcare provider is not necessary as the decision lies with the patient. Persuading the patient to accept the transfusion goes against the principle of respecting the patient's autonomy and beliefs.
4. What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer bronchodilators
- C. Administer IV fluids
- D. Reposition the patient
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress because it helps improve oxygenation. Oxygen therapy is the initial and priority intervention to ensure an adequate oxygen supply to the body tissues. Administering bronchodilators (Choice B) may be appropriate for specific respiratory conditions like asthma or COPD but is not the first-line intervention in all cases of respiratory distress. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) is not a standard intervention for respiratory distress unless there is an underlying cause like dehydration. Repositioning the patient (Choice D) can aid in optimizing ventilation but is not the primary intervention for respiratory distress.
5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Apples.
- B. White bread.
- C. Bananas.
- D. Grapes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bananas are high in potassium, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia. Apples, white bread, and grapes do not have high potassium levels and are generally acceptable for clients with chronic kidney disease unless they have other specific dietary restrictions.
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