ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L
- B. Glucose 250 mg/dL
- C. Bicarbonate 20 mEq/L
- D. Sodium 135 mEq/L
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which is expected in DKA. However, in the context of DKA management, persistent or worsening hyperglycemia can indicate inadequate treatment response or complications, necessitating further monitoring and intervention. Potassium levels are crucial in DKA due to the risk of hypokalemia, but a level of 4.2 mEq/L is within the normal range. Bicarbonate levels are typically low in DKA, making a value of 20 mEq/L consistent with the condition. Sodium levels of 135 mEq/L are also within normal limits and not a priority for immediate reporting in the context of DKA.
2. A nurse is completing a dietary assessment for a client who is Jewish and observes kosher dietary practices. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect to find?
- A. Leavened bread may be eaten during Passover.
- B. Shellfish is commonly consumed in the diet.
- C. Meat and dairy products are eaten separately.
- D. Fasting from meat occurs during Hanukkah.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Kosher dietary laws require the separation of meat and dairy products. Choice A is incorrect because leavened bread is not eaten during Passover in Jewish dietary practices. Choice B is incorrect as shellfish is not considered kosher and is not consumed in Jewish dietary practices. Choice D is incorrect as fasting from meat does not occur during Hanukkah.
3. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient receiving IV potassium?
- A. Monitor urine output
- B. Check blood pressure
- C. Monitor IV site
- D. Check respiratory rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is receiving IV potassium, it is crucial to monitor the IV site. Potassium can be irritating to the veins and may cause phlebitis or infiltration. Monitoring the IV site allows early detection of any potential complications. Checking urine output (Choice A) is important to assess kidney function but is not directly related to monitoring IV potassium. Blood pressure (Choice B) and respiratory rate (Choice D) are essential vital signs to monitor in general patient care but are not specific to monitoring IV potassium administration.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 36 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 92/min
- B. Serosanguineous wound drainage
- C. Yellow wound drainage
- D. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Yellow wound drainage can indicate infection, especially 36 hours postoperative, and should be reported to the provider promptly. Serosanguineous drainage is a normal finding in the early stages of wound healing, and a heart rate of 92/min and a blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg are within normal ranges for a postoperative client. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the yellow wound drainage as it may require immediate intervention.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who has iron deficiency anemia about food choices to increase iron intake. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Eggs
- B. Carrots
- C. White bread
- D. Spinach
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Spinach is an excellent choice to recommend as it is rich in non-heme iron, which can help improve iron levels in clients with iron deficiency anemia. Eggs (Choice A) are a good source of protein but do not contain as much iron as spinach. Carrots (Choice B) are rich in vitamin A but are not a significant source of iron. White bread (Choice C) is not a good source of iron compared to spinach.
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