Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Contractions lasting 80 seconds.
• B. FHR baseline 170/min.
• C. Early decelerations in the FHR.
• D. Temperature 37.4°C (99.3°F).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An FHR baseline of 170/min is considered tachycardia, which is above the normal range during labor and requires immediate attention. High FHR can indicate fetal distress or maternal fever. Choice A, contractions lasting 80 seconds, are within normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are usually benign and do not typically require immediate intervention. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), is within normal limits.

2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is taking spironolactone. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Sodium 144 mEq/L
• B. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• C. Bicarbonate 24 mEq/L
• D. Magnesium 1.9 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Potassium 5.2 mEq/L.' When a client is taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing diuretic, monitoring potassium levels is crucial. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is higher than normal and can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, so it should be reported. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and would not be of immediate concern when assessing a client taking spironolactone.

3. What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Monitor serum creatinine
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Monitor urine output
• D. Monitor potassium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum creatinine. In patients with chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum creatinine is crucial as it reflects kidney function. This assessment helps healthcare providers in evaluating the progression of the disease and adjusting treatment plans accordingly. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is essential in managing chronic kidney disease, but monitoring serum creatinine takes precedence. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and potassium levels (choice D) are also important aspects of managing chronic kidney disease, but they are not the priority assessment compared to monitoring serum creatinine.

4. A client with a new diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Joint pain.
• B. Weight gain.
• C. Butterfly-shaped rash on the face.
• D. Increased appetite.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Weight gain is a common finding in clients with systemic lupus erythematosus due to fluid retention. Joint pain (choice A) is also common in SLE but is not specific to fluid retention. A butterfly-shaped rash on the face (choice C) is a classic symptom of SLE but is not related to fluid retention. Increased appetite (choice D) is less likely in SLE compared to weight gain.

5. A client with iron deficiency anemia has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take with a glass of milk to prevent stomach upset.
• B. Take with orange juice to enhance absorption.
• C. Take on an empty stomach to increase absorption.
• D. Take with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction is to take ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach to increase absorption. This is because taking it with food or dairy products like milk can reduce its absorption. Orange juice is not recommended as it may interfere with the absorption of iron. Taking ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach may cause gastrointestinal upset, but this can be minimized by gradually increasing the dose.

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