a nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation the nurse should expect which of the followi
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A client is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse expect to be ordered to monitor the effect of warfarin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). When a client is on warfarin therapy, the INR is monitored regularly to assess the anticoagulant effects of the medication. A therapeutic INR range for most indications is between 2.0 to 3.0. Choices A, C, and D are not typically used to monitor the effect of warfarin. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood, PT measures the clotting time of plasma, and PTT evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing the client with a stool softener is essential to prevent straining during bowel movements, which could result in bleeding for clients with thrombocytopenia. Encouraging the client to floss daily (choice A) is unrelated to the management of thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers (choice B) is more relevant for clients with a compromised immune system. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems to prevent foodborne illnesses, but it is not directly related to thrombocytopenia.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse on managing hypoglycemia. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Consume 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate. Consuming 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as glucose tablets or juice, helps raise blood glucose levels quickly in cases of hypoglycemia. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding carbohydrate-rich foods during hypoglycemia can worsen the condition. Choice C is incorrect as drinking water does not effectively raise blood glucose levels. Choice D is incorrect as eating a snack before exercising is more related to preventing exercise-induced hypoglycemia, not managing hypoglycemia.

4. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators. In an acute asthma attack, the priority is to open the airways and improve airflow. Bronchodilators like albuterol are crucial in providing immediate relief to the patient. Monitoring oxygen saturation (choice B) is important but administering bronchodilators takes precedence in managing the acute attack. Providing supplemental oxygen (choice C) may be necessary but addressing the airway obstruction with bronchodilators is the priority. Starting IV fluids (choice D) is not the priority in an acute asthma attack unless specifically indicated for other reasons such as dehydration.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched sound that indicates airway obstruction and is the priority finding to report following a thyroidectomy. In this situation, airway compromise is a critical concern that requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. While calcium level (Choice A) and serum sodium level (Choice B) are important assessments post-thyroidectomy, they do not represent an immediate threat to the client's airway. A respiratory rate of 18/min (Choice C) falls within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate risk to the client's airway compared to the presence of stridor.

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