a nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation the nurse should expect which of the followi
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A client is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse expect to be ordered to monitor the effect of warfarin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). When a client is on warfarin therapy, the INR is monitored regularly to assess the anticoagulant effects of the medication. A therapeutic INR range for most indications is between 2.0 to 3.0. Choices A, C, and D are not typically used to monitor the effect of warfarin. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood, PT measures the clotting time of plasma, and PTT evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.

2. A client has a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pale, cool skin is a common finding in clients with a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL due to decreased oxygen carrying capacity. Bounding pulses (Choice A) are not typically associated with low hemoglobin levels. Elevated blood pressure (Choice B) is not a common finding in clients with anemia. While headache (Choice C) can occur with anemia, it is not a specific finding directly related to a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL.

3. A nurse is observing bonding between the client and her newborn. Which of the following actions by the client requires the nurse to intervene?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because viewing the newborn's actions as uncooperative may indicate the client is struggling to bond, requiring intervention. Choices A, B, and C do not raise concerns about the bonding process between the client and the newborn. Holding the newborn in an en face position is a positive interaction. Asking the father to change the newborn's diaper involves family participation in care. Requesting the nurse to take the newborn to the nursery so she can rest is a valid request for maternal self-care.

4. A nurse in the PACU is caring for a client who reports nausea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first when a client reports nausea in the PACU is to turn the client on their side. This action helps prevent aspiration in a client with nausea, reducing the risk of choking or inhaling vomitus. Administering an analgesic (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation unless pain is the primary cause of nausea. While administering an antiemetic (Choice C) can help relieve nausea, it is not the initial action to prevent aspiration. Monitoring the client's vital signs (Choice D) is important but should come after ensuring the client's safety by turning them on their side.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Limiting potassium-rich foods is crucial for clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia, a common complication. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods like bananas (choice A), protein-rich foods (choice C), or dairy products (choice D) can exacerbate hyperkalemia in these clients. Bananas, protein-rich foods, and dairy products are all high in potassium, which is detrimental for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.

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