Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse expect to be ordered to monitor the effect of warfarin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). When a client is on warfarin therapy, the INR is monitored regularly to assess the anticoagulant effects of the medication. A therapeutic INR range for most indications is between 2.0 to 3.0. Choices A, C, and D are not typically used to monitor the effect of warfarin. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood, PT measures the clotting time of plasma, and PTT evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.

2. Which lab value is critical for patients on warfarin therapy?

• A. Monitor INR
• B. Monitor potassium levels
• C. Monitor sodium levels
• D. Monitor platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels for patients on warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is essential because it helps assess the clotting tendency of the blood and ensures that patients are within the therapeutic range to prevent both blood clots and excessive bleeding. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice B), sodium levels (Choice C), or platelet count (Choice D) is not specifically required for patients on warfarin therapy and does not directly impact the effectiveness or safety of the medication.

3. What is the most important nursing action when a patient has a central line?

• A. Monitor for infection
• B. Monitor the central line dressing
• C. Monitor for redness
• D. Monitor for swelling

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important nursing action when a patient has a central line is to monitor for infection. Central line-associated bloodstream infections are a serious complication that can lead to severe outcomes. Monitoring for infection involves assessing the patient for signs and symptoms such as fever, chills, and hypotension. While monitoring the central line dressing, redness, and swelling are also important aspects of care, they are secondary to monitoring for infection as the primary focus should be on preventing serious complications.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Hypotension.
• C. Chest pain.
• D. Dilated pupils.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a panic attack, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, leading to physiological responses such as dilated pupils. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with panic attacks. While chest pain can occur during a panic attack due to rapid breathing and muscle tension, dilated pupils are a more specific finding related to sympathetic activation in this context.

5. A client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings is at risk for aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 15 degrees
• B. Check gastric residual volumes every 6 hours
• C. Monitor the pH of gastric aspirate
• D. Instill 10 mL of air into the tube before feeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking gastric residual volumes every 6 hours is essential in preventing aspiration in clients receiving continuous enteral feedings. This practice helps determine if the stomach is adequately emptying, reducing the risk of regurgitation and aspiration. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees, not 15 degrees, is recommended to further prevent aspiration by reducing the risk of reflux. Monitoring the pH of gastric aspirate is important to assess tube placement but does not directly prevent aspiration. Instilling air into the tube before feeding is not a recommended practice and does not prevent aspiration.

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