Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse expect to be ordered to monitor the effect of warfarin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). When a client is on warfarin therapy, the INR is monitored regularly to assess the anticoagulant effects of the medication. A therapeutic INR range for most indications is between 2.0 to 3.0. Choices A, C, and D are not typically used to monitor the effect of warfarin. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood, PT measures the clotting time of plasma, and PTT evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who is experiencing acute mania. What intervention should the nurse include?

• A. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods.
• B. Withdraw TV privileges if the client does not attend group therapy.
• C. Place the client in seclusion during periods of anxiety.
• D. Encourage the client to spend time in the day room.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods. During acute mania, individuals often experience high levels of energy, decreased need for sleep, and increased activity levels. Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods can help prevent exhaustion and promote better self-regulation. Choice B is incorrect because withdrawing TV privileges may not be directly related to managing acute mania. Choice C is incorrect as placing the client in seclusion can exacerbate feelings of anxiety and agitation. Choice D is incorrect as spending time in the day room may not address the need for rest and relaxation that is crucial during acute mania.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a manifestation of pulmonary congestion?

• A. Frothy, pink sputum
• B. Jugular vein distention
• C. Weight gain
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Frothy, pink sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary congestion in left-sided heart failure. This occurs due to the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, leading to the coughing up of frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Jugular vein distention (choice B) is more indicative of right-sided heart failure, where fluid backs up into the systemic circulation. Weight gain (choice C) may occur due to fluid retention, but it is not a direct manifestation of pulmonary congestion. Bradypnea (choice D) refers to abnormally slow breathing and is not specifically associated with pulmonary congestion.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total knee replacement. The client reports pain of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer ibuprofen 400 mg PO
• B. Administer oxycodone 10 mg PO
• C. Reposition the client to the unaffected side
• D. Apply a cold compress to the affected knee

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the appropriate action for the nurse to take when a client reports severe postoperative pain of 8 out of 10 is to administer oxycodone 10 mg PO. Oxycodone is a potent analgesic that is more effective in managing severe pain compared to ibuprofen, making choice A incorrect. Repositioning the client to the unaffected side or applying a cold compress may provide some comfort but are not the priority interventions for severe postoperative pain, making choices C and D less appropriate.

5. What is the correct method of administering insulin to a patient with diabetes?

• A. Administer subcutaneously
• B. Administer intramuscularly
• C. Administer intravenously
• D. Administer orally

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct method of administering insulin to a patient with diabetes is to administer it subcutaneously. Insulin is typically injected into the fatty tissue just below the skin, allowing for a slow and consistent absorption into the bloodstream. Administering insulin intramuscularly (Choice B) is not recommended as it can lead to unpredictable absorption rates and potential complications. Administering insulin intravenously (Choice C) is only done in specific medical settings and not for routine diabetes management. Administering insulin orally (Choice D) is ineffective as the stomach acid would break down the insulin before it can be absorbed.

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