ATI LPN
ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?
- A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- B. Receiving a formula with high osmolarity.
- C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
- D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.
2. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with diarrhea?
- A. Provide oral fluids and monitor stool consistency
- B. Administer antidiarrheal medications and monitor hydration
- C. Monitor for electrolyte imbalances and provide antibiotics
- D. Provide a low-fiber diet and monitor weight
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For a patient with diarrhea, the priority is to manage dehydration by providing oral fluids and monitoring stool consistency. Option B suggesting administering antidiarrheal medications is not recommended as it may prolong the infection by preventing the body from expelling the infectious agent. Option C is incorrect because antibiotics are not routinely indicated for diarrhea unless there is a specific bacterial infection. Option D is not the most appropriate initial intervention for managing diarrhea since a low-fiber diet may not provide adequate nutrition for the patient or help resolve the underlying cause of diarrhea.
3. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with fluid overload?
- A. Monitor weight and assess for edema
- B. Monitor blood pressure and auscultate lung sounds
- C. Assess for jugular venous distention
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation and check for fluid retention
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct way to assess a patient with fluid overload is by monitoring weight and assessing for edema. Weight monitoring helps in detecting fluid retention, and edema is a visible sign of excess fluid accumulation. Although monitoring blood pressure and auscultating lung sounds are important assessments in heart failure, they are not specific to fluid overload. Assessing for jugular venous distention is more indicative of right-sided heart failure rather than fluid overload. Monitoring oxygen saturation and checking for fluid retention are not primary assessments for fluid overload.
4. A nurse is caring for a client following an acute myocardial infarction who is concerned about fatigue. What is the best strategy to promote independence in self-care?
- A. Instruct the client to remain in bed until the fatigue resolves
- B. Encourage the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods
- C. Assign assistive personnel to perform all self-care tasks for the client
- D. Ask the client's family to assist with self-care
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods is the best strategy to promote independence while managing fatigue. This approach allows the client to regain confidence in their abilities and fosters independence. Option A is incorrect as prolonged bed rest can lead to deconditioning and worsen fatigue. Option C is not promoting independence as it involves delegating all self-care tasks to others. Option D involves family assistance, which may be helpful but does not directly promote the client's independence in self-care.
5. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
- A. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring.
- B. A client who has diabetes mellitus and a hemoglobin A1C of 6.8%.
- C. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities.
- D. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. New onset of tachypnea indicates a potential respiratory complication that requires immediate attention. Assessing the client with a hip fracture and tachypnea first is crucial to address the respiratory issue and prevent further deterioration. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening complications that require urgent assessment compared to a new onset of tachypnea.
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