ATI LPN
ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?
- A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- B. Receiving a formula with high osmolarity.
- C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
- D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.
2. A healthcare professional is collecting data from a client who is in the diagnostic center and is scheduled to undergo a colonoscopy. Based on the information provided in the client's chart, which of the following pieces of data places this client at risk for colorectal cancer?
- A. Family history of asthma
- B. Elevated BMI
- C. History of travel
- D. High cholesterol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Elevated BMI is a significant risk factor for colorectal cancer. Excess body weight, especially around the waist, increases the risk of developing this type of cancer. Family history of asthma (Choice A) is not directly related to colorectal cancer risk. History of travel (Choice C) and high cholesterol (Choice D) are also not established risk factors for colorectal cancer.
3. Which intervention is most important for a client with rheumatoid arthritis?
- A. Massage inflamed joints with creams and oils
- B. Provide support to flexed joints with pillows and pads
- C. Position the client on their abdomen several times a day
- D. Assist with heat application and range of motion exercises
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most important intervention for a client with rheumatoid arthritis is to assist with heat application and range of motion exercises. Heat application helps reduce stiffness and improve joint flexibility, while range of motion exercises help maintain mobility and prevent contractures. Massaging inflamed joints with creams and oils may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of stiffness and limited mobility in rheumatoid arthritis. Providing support to flexed joints with pillows and pads can be helpful for comfort but does not actively promote mobility. Positioning the client on their abdomen several times a day is not a standard intervention for managing rheumatoid arthritis.
4. A healthcare professional is collecting data from a client who is experiencing post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare professional expect?
- A. Hyperactivity
- B. Hypervigilance
- C. Restlessness
- D. Avoidance of social situations
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hypervigilance is a common manifestation of PTSD characterized by heightened alertness and fear of danger. This heightened state of awareness can lead to irritability, difficulty concentrating, and sleep disturbances. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactivity is not typically associated with PTSD; restlessness may be present but is not the primary manifestation, and avoidance of social situations is more commonly seen in conditions like social anxiety disorder rather than PTSD.
5. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has myasthenia gravis (MG). Which of the following images should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is experiencing ptosis?
- A. Drooping eyelids
- B. Unequal pupils
- C. Facial twitching
- D. Facial droop
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Drooping eyelids.' Ptosis, characterized by drooping of the eyelid, is a classic symptom seen in myasthenia gravis. This occurs due to muscle weakness, particularly in the muscles that control eyelid movement. Choice B, 'Unequal pupils,' is not associated with ptosis and may indicate other neurological issues. Choice C, 'Facial twitching,' is not a typical sign of ptosis but could be related to other conditions like nerve irritation. Choice D, 'Facial droop,' is more commonly seen in conditions affecting the facial nerve, like Bell's palsy, and is not a characteristic feature of myasthenia gravis.
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