ATI LPN
ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?
- A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- B. Receiving a formula with high osmolarity.
- C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
- D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.
2. What are the common complications of diabetes, and how should they be managed?
- A. Retinopathy and nephropathy; manage with regular screening
- B. Neuropathy and cardiovascular disease; manage with medication
- C. Foot ulcers and hypertension; manage with proper foot care
- D. Hypertension and liver disease; manage with insulin therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Common complications of diabetes include retinopathy (damage to the retina) and nephropathy (kidney damage). These complications can be managed effectively with regular screening to detect any signs early on. Choice B is incorrect as neuropathy and cardiovascular disease are other complications of diabetes but are managed through various treatments and lifestyle modifications, not just medication. Choice C is incorrect as although foot ulcers and hypertension are associated with diabetes, the management involves proper foot care practices and blood pressure control, respectively. Choice D is incorrect as hypertension and liver disease are not the typical complications of diabetes, and insulin therapy is not the primary management for these conditions.
3. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with congestive heart failure?
- A. Administer diuretics and monitor fluid balance
- B. Provide a high-sodium diet and restrict fluids
- C. Administer oxygen and provide pain relief
- D. Provide bronchodilators and encourage mobility
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct answer: The most appropriate management for a patient with congestive heart failure is to administer diuretics to help remove excess fluid and monitor fluid balance. Diuretics help reduce the workload on the heart and alleviate symptoms of fluid overload. Choice B is incorrect because patients with congestive heart failure are usually advised to limit sodium intake and carefully monitor fluid intake. Choice C is incorrect because although oxygen therapy may be necessary in certain cases, it is not the primary management for congestive heart failure. Pain relief is not a primary intervention for this condition. Choice D is incorrect because bronchodilators are not the first-line treatment for congestive heart failure. Encouraging mobility is important, but administering diuretics and monitoring fluid balance take precedence in managing this condition.
4. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is taking digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is an adverse effect of digoxin. Digoxin can cause hypokalemia, which increases the risk of toxicity. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial when a client is taking digoxin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypernatremia, hypertension, and tachycardia are not directly associated with digoxin use.
5. Which of the following is an early sign that suctioning is required for a client with a tracheostomy?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Irritability
- C. Confusion
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is necessary to clear the airway in a client with a tracheostomy. When secretions build up in the tracheostomy tube, the client may become irritable due to the discomfort and the compromised airway. Bradycardia, confusion, and hypotension are not typically early signs that suctioning is required. Bradycardia may occur if the airway becomes severely compromised, confusion may be a late sign of hypoxia, and hypotension is not directly related to the need for suctioning in a client with a tracheostomy.
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