a nurse is preparing to administer ceftriaxone im to a client which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone IM to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: When administering intramuscular injections like ceftriaxone, it is essential to aspirate for blood return before injecting the medication to ensure that the needle is not in a blood vessel. Choices A and B are incorrect because ceftriaxone is typically administered using a syringe appropriate for IM injections (not a tuberculin syringe) and injected at a 90-degree angle rather than 45 degrees. Choice C is incorrect because the dorsogluteal site is no longer recommended for IM injections due to potential injury to the sciatic nerve and other structures.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has just received an opioid medication. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client receives an opioid medication, the nurse should first monitor for respiratory depression as it is a life-threatening adverse effect associated with opioids. This can lead to inadequate ventilation and hypoxia, requiring immediate intervention. Constipation, drowsiness, and orthostatic hypotension are also common side effects of opioids but are not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory depression.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Weight gain can indicate myxedema, which is a symptom commonly seen in hypothyroidism. Exophthalmos (choice B) is actually a characteristic finding of hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism. Tachycardia (choice C) and heat intolerance (choice D) are also more indicative of hyperthyroidism rather than hypothyroidism.

4. A client is being taught about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking furosemide should avoid alcohol because it can lead to dehydration and potential interactions with the medication. Choices A and B are incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so the client should not expect an increase in potassium levels or solely rely on bananas for potassium intake. Choice C is incorrect because a cough is not a common side effect of furosemide and should not be a reason to stop taking the medication.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client prescribed with lisinopril is that they should avoid using salt substitutes while taking this medication. Lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Therefore, using salt substitutes that contain potassium can worsen this condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lisinopril is not typically associated with causing a dry cough or a slow heart rate, and increasing potassium intake can be harmful in the presence of lisinopril-induced hyperkalemia.

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