ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone IM to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the medication using a tuberculin syringe
- B. Administer the medication at a 45-degree angle
- C. Use the dorsogluteal muscle for injection
- D. Aspirate for blood return before injecting the medication
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: When administering intramuscular injections like ceftriaxone, it is essential to aspirate for blood return before injecting the medication to ensure that the needle is not in a blood vessel. Choices A and B are incorrect because ceftriaxone is typically administered using a syringe appropriate for IM injections (not a tuberculin syringe) and injected at a 90-degree angle rather than 45 degrees. Choice C is incorrect because the dorsogluteal site is no longer recommended for IM injections due to potential injury to the sciatic nerve and other structures.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has diaper dermatitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Apply zinc oxide ointment to the irritated area
- B. Wipe stool from the skin using store-bought baby wipes
- C. Apply talcum powder to the irritated area
- D. Apply a warm compress to the irritated area
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct answer: Applying zinc oxide ointment to the irritated area is the most appropriate action for diaper dermatitis. Zinc oxide is a barrier cream that helps protect the skin and promote healing. Choice B is incorrect because using store-bought baby wipes may contain chemicals or fragrances that can further irritate the skin. Choice C is incorrect as talcum powder can also worsen the condition by drying out the skin. Choice D is incorrect because a warm compress is not typically used for diaper dermatitis; it may provide relief for other conditions but is not the best option for diaper dermatitis.
3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has COPD and is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following findings should the provider report?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 95%.
- B. Productive cough with clear sputum.
- C. Respiratory rate of 22/min.
- D. Client reports dyspnea.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dyspnea in a client with COPD receiving oxygen should be reported as it may indicate worsening respiratory status. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the expected range for a client receiving oxygen therapy and does not require immediate reporting. A productive cough with clear sputum is a common symptom in clients with COPD and does not necessarily warrant urgent reporting. A respiratory rate of 22/min is also within normal limits and does not raise immediate concerns in this scenario.
4. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient on furosemide for fluid balance?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Check for edema
- C. Monitor input and output
- D. Monitor blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring a patient's daily weight is crucial when assessing fluid balance in individuals prescribed furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body eliminate excess fluid and salt. Changes in weight can reflect fluid shifts, making daily weight monitoring a reliable indicator of fluid status. While checking for edema and monitoring input and output are essential aspects of fluid balance assessment, they may not provide as immediate and quantifiable information as daily weight measurements. Monitoring blood pressure is important in patients on furosemide due to its potential to affect blood pressure levels, but it is not as directly indicative of fluid balance as daily weight monitoring.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery and has an indwelling urinary catheter that is draining dark yellow urine at 25 ml/hr. What intervention should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Clamp the catheter.
- B. Administer a fluid bolus.
- C. Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity.
- D. Initiate continuous bladder irrigation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should anticipate initiating continuous bladder irrigation. Dark yellow urine output at a rate of 25 ml/hr following abdominal surgery may indicate urinary stasis or obstruction, which could lead to complications like urinary retention. Continuous bladder irrigation helps prevent catheter obstruction and manage urinary retention by ensuring patency and promoting urine flow. Clamping the catheter (Choice A) could lead to urinary stasis and should be avoided. Administering a fluid bolus (Choice B) is not indicated solely based on the urine color and output described. Obtaining a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity (Choice C) may be necessary for assessing infection but does not directly address the issue of urinary stasis or obstruction.
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