ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?
- A. Substernal retractions
- B. Hematuria
- C. Temperature 37.9�C (100.2�F)
- D. Sneezing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Substernal retractions are a concerning sign of respiratory distress and can indicate acute chest syndrome, a severe complication of sickle-cell anemia. It results from vaso-occlusion in the pulmonary vasculature, leading to impaired oxygenation. Prompt reporting of this symptom is crucial for early intervention to prevent further complications. Hematuria, a high temperature, and sneezing are not specific manifestations of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate notification to the provider in this context.
2. How many milliliters are equal to 20 cc?
- A. 2
- B. 20
- C. 2000
- D. 20000
Correct answer: B
Rationale: 1 cc (cubic centimeter) is equal to 1 ml. Therefore, 20 cc is equal to 20 ml. To convert between cubic centimeters (cc) and milliliters (ml), the values are equivalent since they both measure volume in the metric system. Choice A (2) is incorrect as it does not account for the direct conversion between cc and ml. Choice C (2000) and choice D (20000) are incorrect as they represent conversions based on a misunderstanding of the relationship between cc and ml.
3. What is the primary purpose of a platelet count?
- A. Assessing clot formation potential
- B. Assessing bleeding risk
- C. Detecting antigen-antibody response
- D. Identifying cardiac enzymes presence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A platelet count is primarily used to assess the risk of bleeding. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting, so a low platelet count can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels helps healthcare providers evaluate a patient's ability to form clots and manage bleeding.
4. A client has unilateral paralysis and dysphagia following a right hemispheric stroke. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Place the client's left arm on a pillow while he is sitting.
- B. Provide total care in assisting with the client's ADLs.
- C. Encourage mobility and avoid bed rest.
- D. Facilitate feeding by placing food on the left side of the client's mouth when ready to eat.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Placing the client's left arm on a pillow while sitting helps prevent shoulder displacement and assists in maintaining proper positioning and alignment. This intervention is crucial to prevent complications associated with immobility. Providing total care in ADLs may hinder the client's independence and recovery. Encouraging mobility is essential in preventing complications of immobility. Facilitating feeding by placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth helps reduce the risk of aspiration in clients with dysphagia.
5. Which chamber of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?
- A. Left atrium
- B. Right atrium
- C. Left ventricle
- D. Right ventricle
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, the left atrium. The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the pulmonary veins. This blood is then pumped into the left ventricle before being circulated throughout the body. The right atrium, represented by choice B, actually receives deoxygenated blood from the body through the vena cava. Choices C and D, the left ventricle and right ventricle respectively, are chambers involved in pumping blood out of the heart to the body and lungs, rather than receiving blood from the lungs.
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