ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?
- A. Substernal retractions
- B. Hematuria
- C. Temperature 37.9�C (100.2�F)
- D. Sneezing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Substernal retractions are a concerning sign of respiratory distress and can indicate acute chest syndrome, a severe complication of sickle-cell anemia. It results from vaso-occlusion in the pulmonary vasculature, leading to impaired oxygenation. Prompt reporting of this symptom is crucial for early intervention to prevent further complications. Hematuria, a high temperature, and sneezing are not specific manifestations of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate notification to the provider in this context.
2. When caring for a client in the advanced stage of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), which of the following referrals is the nurse's priority?
- A. Psychologist
- B. Social worker
- C. Occupational therapist
- D. Speech-language pathologist
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the advanced stage of ALS, speech and swallowing difficulties become significant. As a result, the priority referral for the nurse would be a speech-language pathologist. This professional can assist in managing communication challenges and provide strategies to address swallowing issues, ensuring the client's safety and quality of life.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. WBC count 8,000/mm�
- B. Platelets 150,000/mm�
- C. Aspartate aminotransferase 10 units/L
- D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 75 mm/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with rheumatoid arthritis, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a common finding and indicates inflammation in the body. A high ESR value suggests active disease activity and potential joint damage. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report an ESR of 75 mm/hr to the provider for further evaluation and management of the client's rheumatoid arthritis.
4. A client experiencing dyspnea will receive continuous oxygen. Which oxygen device should be used to deliver a precise amount of oxygen?
- A. Non-rebreather mask
- B. Venturi mask
- C. Nasal cannula
- D. Simple face mask
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A Venturi mask is the most appropriate choice for delivering a precise amount of oxygen to a client with dyspnea. Unlike other oxygen delivery devices, the Venturi mask allows for accurate oxygen concentration delivery by controlling the amount of air entrained. This feature is crucial in ensuring the client receives the prescribed oxygen concentration, especially in cases where precise oxygen delivery is required.
5. What is the primary purpose of handwashing?
- A. To promote hand circulation
- B. To prevent the transfer of microorganisms
- C. To avoid touching the client with a dirty hand
- D. To provide comfort
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of handwashing is to prevent the transfer of microorganisms. Proper hand hygiene helps reduce the risk of spreading harmful bacteria and viruses, thus promoting overall health and preventing infections. Choice A is incorrect as handwashing primarily focuses on cleanliness rather than promoting circulation. Choice C is incorrect as it implies that the main concern is avoiding client discomfort rather than preventing infection. Choice D is incorrect as while handwashing can be comforting in some situations, its primary purpose is not to provide comfort but to maintain hygiene.
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