Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Dry cough.
• B. Hyperglycemia.
• C. Weight gain.
• D. Increased urination.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, is a persistent dry cough. This occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin. It is essential for the client to monitor for this side effect and report it to their healthcare provider promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hyperglycemia, weight gain, and increased urination are not typically associated with Enalapril use.

2. A client with prostate cancer is receiving leuprolide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Increased testosterone levels
• B. Increased libido
• C. Gynecomastia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for gynecomastia, as it is an adverse effect of leuprolide due to decreased testosterone levels. Leuprolide works by decreasing testosterone production, which can lead to gynecomastia, the development of male breast tissue. Monitoring for this side effect is essential for early detection and intervention.

3. A client with schizophrenia is being taught strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of Fluphenazine. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to the client to minimize anticholinergic effects?

• A. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
• B. Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.
• C. Use cooling measures to decrease fever.
• D. Take an antacid to relieve nausea.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chewing sugarless gum is an effective strategy to manage dry mouth, a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. By stimulating saliva production, sugarless gum helps to moisten the mouth and alleviate the discomfort associated with dryness. This intervention can improve the client's oral health and overall comfort while taking the medication. The other options are not directly related to alleviating anticholinergic effects. Taking the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia does not address anticholinergic effects specifically. Using cooling measures to decrease fever is not relevant to managing dry mouth caused by anticholinergic effects. Taking an antacid to relieve nausea is unrelated to managing dry mouth, which is the focus of anticholinergic effects.

4. What is the appropriate medication to administer for a suspected opioid overdose in a patient who comes to the hospital?

• A. Exenatide
• B. Naloxone
• C. Heparin
• D. Tolvaptan

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Naloxone. Naloxone is the drug of choice for managing opioid overdoses as it competitively antagonizes opioid receptors, reversing the respiratory depression and sedation caused by opioids. It is crucial in the emergency treatment of opioid overdose to prevent fatal outcomes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Exenatide is a medication used to treat diabetes, heparin is an anticoagulant, and tolvaptan is a diuretic. None of these medications are indicated for the management of opioid overdose.

5. A client has a new prescription for Ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with milk.
• B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Take this medication before bedtime.
• D. Take this medication with antacids.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to take Ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach. This medication is best absorbed when taken 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals. Instructing the client to take it with milk, before bedtime, or with antacids can decrease its absorption and effectiveness. Taking it with milk can reduce the absorption of iron due to the calcium in milk. Taking it before bedtime is not necessary and may cause gastrointestinal upset. Taking it with antacids can interfere with the absorption of iron.

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