ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client has a new prescription for Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Dry cough.
- B. Hyperglycemia.
- C. Weight gain.
- D. Increased urination.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, is a persistent dry cough. This occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin. It is essential for the client to monitor for this side effect and report it to their healthcare provider promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hyperglycemia, weight gain, and increased urination are not typically associated with Enalapril use.
2. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following over-the-counter medications should the provider instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Acetaminophen
- B. Ibuprofen
- C. Diphenhydramine
- D. Loratadine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with Warfarin due to its antiplatelet effects. The combination of Warfarin, an anticoagulant, and NSAIDs can potentiate the risk of bleeding complications. Clients on Warfarin should avoid NSAIDs like ibuprofen and opt for alternative pain relief options such as acetaminophen. Diphenhydramine and loratadine are antihistamines and are generally safe to use with Warfarin as they do not significantly increase the risk of bleeding when compared to NSAIDs like ibuprofen.
3. Which of the following drugs is associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
- A. Valproic acid
- B. Quinidine
- C. Isoniazid
- D. Ethosuximide
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe skin reaction that can be associated with Ethosuximide.
4. A client is withdrawing from alcohol and has a new prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following information should be included in the teaching?
- A. Increases the risk for seizure activity.
- B. Provides a form of aversion therapy.
- C. Decreases cravings.
- D. Results in mild hypertension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreases cravings.' Propranolol is commonly used as an adjunct medication during alcohol withdrawal to help reduce cravings for alcohol. It does not increase the risk for seizure activity, provide aversion therapy, or result in mild hypertension. By decreasing cravings, Propranolol can support the client in managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms and promoting abstinence. Therefore, it is important to educate the client on how Propranolol can help them cope with alcohol cravings effectively.
5. A client with chronic myeloid leukemia is receiving hydroxyurea. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Tinnitus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving hydroxyurea. Neutropenia is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. It is essential to assess the client's white blood cell count regularly to detect neutropenia early and prevent complications such as infections.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access