Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with a stage 3 pressure ulcer?

• A. Apply hydrocolloid dressing
• B. Provide wound debridement
• C. Change the dressing daily
• D. Elevate the affected area

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. Stage 3 pressure ulcers are characterized by full-thickness skin loss involving damage to or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue, which requires a moist environment for healing. Hydrocolloid dressings help maintain a moist wound environment, promote healing, and provide protection. Providing wound debridement may be necessary but is not the priority intervention at this stage. Changing the dressing daily is important for wound care but not the priority over creating an optimal healing environment. Elevating the affected area can help with circulation and reduce swelling, but it is not the priority intervention for a stage 3 pressure ulcer.

2. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with chronic pain?

• A. Administer analgesics
• B. Encourage physical activity
• C. Administer non-pharmacological interventions
• D. Encourage deep breathing exercises

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering prescribed analgesics is a crucial aspect of managing chronic pain effectively. Analgesics help alleviate pain symptoms and improve the patient's quality of life. While physical activity and non-pharmacological interventions can also play a role in pain management, the immediate need for relief in chronic pain often requires pharmacological intervention. Encouraging deep breathing exercises may provide some relief in certain situations, but it may not be as effective as analgesics for managing chronic pain.

3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. White blood cell count 6,000/mm3
• B. Positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) titer
• C. Platelet count 220,000/mm3
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) titer is a significant finding in clients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) as it indicates active disease. This result should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and not specifically indicative of disease activity in SLE. Therefore, they do not require immediate reporting to the provider.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who is at 10 weeks gestation about the amniocentesis procedure. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. This test will confirm whether your baby has a genetic disorder.
• B. Amniocentesis is used to assess your baby's lung maturity.
• C. You should not feel any pain during this procedure.
• D. This test will assess the amount of amniotic fluid around your baby.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because amniocentesis is a procedure that confirms genetic disorders by analyzing the amniotic fluid surrounding the baby. Choice B is incorrect because amniocentesis is not used to assess lung maturity. Choice C is incorrect because some discomfort or pain may be felt during the procedure. Choice D is incorrect because amniocentesis does not primarily assess the amount of amniotic fluid around the baby.

Similar Questions