what is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with a stage 3 pressure ulcer
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with a stage 3 pressure ulcer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. Stage 3 pressure ulcers are characterized by full-thickness skin loss involving damage to or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue, which requires a moist environment for healing. Hydrocolloid dressings help maintain a moist wound environment, promote healing, and provide protection. Providing wound debridement may be necessary but is not the priority intervention at this stage. Changing the dressing daily is important for wound care but not the priority over creating an optimal healing environment. Elevating the affected area can help with circulation and reduce swelling, but it is not the priority intervention for a stage 3 pressure ulcer.

2. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of benzodiazepine overdose, such as diazepam ingestion, flumazenil is the antidote. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to administer flumazenil to the client. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (Choice A) is important but not the immediate priority. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (Choice C) is important but not the next immediate action. Initiating seizure precautions (Choice D) is not the priority as the client's airway has already been secured.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A continuous murmur is a classic finding in a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus. This murmur is typically heard between the first and second heart sounds and throughout systole. Absent peripheral pulses (choice B) are not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus. Increased blood pressure (choice C) and bounding pulses (choice D) are not commonly seen with this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: An increased respiratory rate is a common finding in clients with ARDS as the body attempts to compensate for impaired gas exchange. Barrel-shaped chest (Choice A) is associated with conditions like COPD, not ARDS. Bradycardia (Choice B) is unlikely in ARDS due to the body's compensatory mechanisms to improve oxygenation. Tracheal deviation (Choice D) is not typically seen in ARDS and is more suggestive of other respiratory conditions.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pallor. Pallor, which is paleness of the skin, is a common sign of anemia due to a decreased number of red blood cells or hemoglobin levels. This results in reduced oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to the paleness of the skin. Choice A, increased appetite, is not typically associated with anemia. Choice C, tachycardia (increased heart rate), can be present in anemia as the body compensates for decreased oxygenation. Choice D, hypertension (high blood pressure), is not a common finding in anemia; instead, low blood pressure may be observed due to decreased blood volume.

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