ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients. Which of the following prescriptions should the healthcare professional identify as complete?
- A. Furosemide 20 mg BID.
- B. Aspirin 1 tablet daily.
- C. Nitroglycerin transdermal patch.
- D. Metoprolol 5 mg IV now.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides the medication (Metoprolol), dosage (5 mg), route of administration (IV), and timing (now), making it a complete prescription. Choices A, B, and C lack either the route of administration or timing, making them incomplete prescriptions. For choice A, it lacks the route of administration, and for choices B and C, they lack the timing of administration.
2. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. Calcium 9.0 mg/dL
- C. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
- D. Chloride 100 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values indicates the TPN is effective?
- A. Albumin 3.5 g/dL
- B. Hemoglobin 8 g/dL
- C. WBC count 15,000/mm3
- D. Blood glucose 110 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL indicates that the TPN is effective in maintaining normal glucose levels. Hemoglobin level (choice B) is related to anemia and not directly indicative of TPN effectiveness. Albumin level (choice A) is a marker of nutritional status over a longer term and may not reflect immediate TPN effectiveness. White blood cell count (choice C) is related to infection or inflammation and is not a direct indicator of TPN effectiveness.
4. What is the initial action a healthcare provider should take for a patient with chest pain?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer nitroglycerin
- C. Administer morphine
- D. Prepare for surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct initial action for a patient with chest pain is to administer oxygen. Chest pain can be caused by insufficient oxygenation, and providing oxygen helps alleviate the pain by increasing oxygen levels in the blood. Administering nitroglycerin or morphine may be appropriate based on the underlying cause of the chest pain, but oxygen should be given first to ensure the patient's oxygen supply is adequate. Surgery is not typically the initial intervention for chest pain.
5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease and is receiving hemodialysis. What dietary instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take magnesium hydroxide for indigestion.
- B. Drink at least 3L of fluid daily.
- C. Eat 1g/kg of protein per day.
- D. Consume foods high in potassium.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For a client with chronic kidney disease receiving hemodialysis, consuming 1g/kg of protein per day is important. This amount helps manage the condition without overburdening the kidneys. Choice A is incorrect because magnesium hydroxide is not specifically recommended for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice B is not accurate as fluid intake needs to be individualized based on the client's condition and dialysis status. Choice D is incorrect because foods high in potassium should generally be limited for individuals with kidney disease undergoing hemodialysis to prevent hyperkalemia.
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