Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients. Which of the following prescriptions should the healthcare professional identify as complete?

• A. Furosemide 20 mg BID.
• B. Aspirin 1 tablet daily.
• C. Nitroglycerin transdermal patch.
• D. Metoprolol 5 mg IV now.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides the medication (Metoprolol), dosage (5 mg), route of administration (IV), and timing (now), making it a complete prescription. Choices A, B, and C lack either the route of administration or timing, making them incomplete prescriptions. For choice A, it lacks the route of administration, and for choices B and C, they lack the timing of administration.

2. What is the priority nursing action for a patient with confusion post-surgery?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Reposition the patient
• C. Check oxygen saturation
• D. Perform a neurological exam

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer oxygen. Post-surgery, confusion in a patient could be due to hypoxia, a condition where the body is deprived of an adequate oxygen supply. Administering oxygen helps address hypoxia promptly, improving oxygen levels in the body and potentially resolving the confusion. Repositioning the patient, checking oxygen saturation, and performing a neurological exam may be important interventions but addressing hypoxia with oxygen administration takes precedence as the priority action.

3. While caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
• B. Administer a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride.
• C. Check the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours.
• D. Flush the TPN line with sterile water before and after administration.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Checking the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours is essential when managing a client on TPN to monitor for hyperglycemia, a common complication. Monitoring urine output (Choice A) is important but not a priority in this scenario. Administering a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice B) is not indicated as it is unrelated to managing TPN. Flushing the TPN line with sterile water (Choice D) is necessary, but it should be done with 0.9% sodium chloride, not water.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of seizure disorder and is receiving phenytoin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Ataxia.
• C. Tachycardia.
• D. Insomnia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ataxia. Ataxia, which refers to uncoordinated movements, is a common adverse effect of phenytoin, a medication used to manage seizure disorders. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with phenytoin; instead, it may cause tachycardia (Choice C) as a side effect. Insomnia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Place a pillow under the client's knees
• B. Keep the client's legs elevated
• C. Flex the client's knee every 2 hours
• D. Apply heat to the operative knee

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Keeping the client's legs elevated is the appropriate action to prevent venous thromboembolism following a total knee arthroplasty. Elevating the legs helps promote circulation and reduce the risk of blood clots. Placing a pillow under the client's knees may provide comfort but does not address the specific postoperative complication. Flexing the client's knee every 2 hours may be contraindicated as excessive movement can disrupt the surgical site. Applying heat to the operative knee is not recommended immediately postoperatively as it can increase swelling and discomfort.

Similar Questions