Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients. Which of the following prescriptions should the healthcare professional identify as complete?

• A. Furosemide 20 mg BID.
• B. Aspirin 1 tablet daily.
• C. Nitroglycerin transdermal patch.
• D. Metoprolol 5 mg IV now.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides the medication (Metoprolol), dosage (5 mg), route of administration (IV), and timing (now), making it a complete prescription. Choices A, B, and C lack either the route of administration or timing, making them incomplete prescriptions. For choice A, it lacks the route of administration, and for choices B and C, they lack the timing of administration.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total knee replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 88/min
• B. Serous drainage on the dressing
• C. Temperature 37.3°C (99.1°F)
• D. Calf pain on dorsiflexion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Calf pain on dorsiflexion following knee surgery may indicate a complication such as deep vein thrombosis, which is a serious condition requiring medical attention. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are within normal range for a client post knee surgery and do not typically indicate immediate complications that require urgent reporting.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following findings indicates the effectiveness of the treatment?

• A. A chest x-ray reveals increased density in all lung fields.
• B. The client reports feeling less anxious.
• C. Diminished breath sounds are auscultated bilaterally.
• D. ABG results include pH 7.48, PaO2 77 mm Hg, and PaCO2 47 mm Hg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In a client with a pulmonary embolism, improvement in anxiety levels can indicate the effectiveness of treatment as it suggests better oxygenation and perfusion. Choices A, C, and D do not directly reflect the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism. Increased density in all lung fields on a chest x-ray may indicate worsening of the condition, diminished breath sounds suggest impaired lung function, and ABG results with a pH of 7.48, PaO2 of 77 mm Hg, and PaCO2 of 47 mm Hg do not specifically indicate treatment effectiveness for a pulmonary embolism.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is a common concern for patients on loop diuretics?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Loop diuretics can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This imbalance is a common concern because potassium plays a vital role in various physiological functions, including maintaining proper heart function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because loop diuretics typically do not cause hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, or hypercalcemia.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L
• B. Glucose 250 mg/dL
• C. Bicarbonate 20 mEq/L
• D. Sodium 135 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which is expected in DKA. However, in the context of DKA management, persistent or worsening hyperglycemia can indicate inadequate treatment response or complications, necessitating further monitoring and intervention. Potassium levels are crucial in DKA due to the risk of hypokalemia, but a level of 4.2 mEq/L is within the normal range. Bicarbonate levels are typically low in DKA, making a value of 20 mEq/L consistent with the condition. Sodium levels of 135 mEq/L are also within normal limits and not a priority for immediate reporting in the context of DKA.

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