what is the priority intervention for a patient presenting with chest pain
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. What is the priority intervention for a patient presenting with chest pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer aspirin. Administering aspirin is a priority intervention for a patient presenting with chest pain because it helps reduce the risk of further clot formation and improves oxygenation. Aspirin is commonly used in the initial management of suspected cardiac chest pain. Administering nitroglycerin can follow aspirin administration to help with vasodilation. Repositioning the patient or preparing for surgery are not the primary interventions for chest pain presentation.

2. A client is 4 hours postpartum. Which of the following interventions should be implemented to prevent postpartum hemorrhage?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering methylergonovine intramuscularly helps contract the uterus, reducing the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not directly related to preventing postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine massage (Choice B) is beneficial to prevent uterine atony, but methylergonovine is a more specific intervention to prevent hemorrhage. Applying ice packs to the perineum (Choice C) is helpful for perineal pain and swelling, not for preventing postpartum hemorrhage.

3. A client who is at 10 weeks of gestation and experiencing nausea and vomiting is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should eat crackers before getting out of bed.' Eating crackers before getting out of bed can help reduce nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This recommendation helps in stabilizing blood sugar levels before fully waking up. Choice B is incorrect because ginger ale may exacerbate nausea due to its carbonation. Choice C is incorrect as lying down after eating can worsen symptoms of nausea. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding eating between meals can lead to low blood sugar levels, worsening nausea and vomiting.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verifying the client's blood type and Rh factor is crucial before administering blood products to ensure compatibility and prevent adverse reactions. Option A is incorrect because PRBCs are typically infused over a specific time frame based on hospital policy and client condition, not necessarily over 8 hours. Option C is incorrect as PRBCs are usually administered through a larger gauge catheter to prevent hemolysis. Option D is incorrect because PRBCs are typically administered with normal saline and not lactated Ringer's solution.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperkalemia. In chronic kidney disease, there is decreased renal excretion of potassium, leading to elevated serum potassium levels. Hypokalemia (Choice A) is low potassium levels, which is the opposite finding in this scenario. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) is decreased calcium levels and is not directly related to chronic kidney disease or elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) is low blood sugar levels and is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease or high potassium levels.

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