ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. What is the priority intervention for a patient presenting with chest pain?
- A. Administer aspirin
 - B. Administer nitroglycerin
 - C. Reposition the patient
 - D. Prepare for surgery
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer aspirin. Administering aspirin is a priority intervention for a patient presenting with chest pain because it helps reduce the risk of further clot formation and improves oxygenation. Aspirin is commonly used in the initial management of suspected cardiac chest pain. Administering nitroglycerin can follow aspirin administration to help with vasodilation. Repositioning the patient or preparing for surgery are not the primary interventions for chest pain presentation.
2. A client with osteoporosis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following foods should be recommended?
- A. Almonds
 - B. Spinach
 - C. Yogurt
 - D. Carrots
 
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Yogurt is a calcium-rich food that helps strengthen bones and should be recommended to clients with osteoporosis. Almonds, spinach, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as yogurt and are not as beneficial for individuals with osteoporosis.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of the effectiveness of the treatment?
- A. Respiratory rate of 24/min
 - B. White blood cell count of 15,000/mm3
 - C. SpO2 of 95%
 - D. Clear breath sounds
 
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clear breath sounds are an essential indicator of effective pneumonia treatment as they suggest resolution of the lung infection. A normal respiratory rate (A) indicates adequate breathing but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment. An elevated white blood cell count (B) is a sign of infection and may not decrease immediately with treatment. While maintaining an SpO2 of 95% (C) is crucial for oxygenation, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment.
4. What is the best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?
- A. Supine position
 - B. Semi-Fowler's position
 - C. Trendelenburg position
 - D. Prone position
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Supine position (lying flat on the back) may worsen breathing difficulties by reducing lung capacity. The Trendelenburg position (feet elevated higher than the head) is not recommended for patients with shortness of breath as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The Prone position (lying face down) is also not suitable for patients experiencing shortness of breath as it may further restrict breathing.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Respiratory rate 16/min.
 - B. Blood pressure 118/78 mm Hg.
 - C. Urinary output of 30 mL/hr.
 - D. Absent deep-tendon reflexes.
 
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Absent deep-tendon reflexes indicate magnesium toxicity and should be reported immediately. Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia, but toxicity can lead to serious complications, including respiratory depression and loss of deep-tendon reflexes. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, so they do not require immediate reporting.
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