ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's medication history and notes a new prescription for Enalapril. The healthcare professional should monitor the client for which of the following as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia as an adverse effect due to decreased aldosterone levels, which leads to potassium retention. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent potential complications associated with hyperkalemia. The other options, bradycardia, hypoglycemia, and hypocalcemia, are not typically associated with Enalapril use and are less likely to occur as adverse effects.
2. A client is starting therapy with filgrastim, and a nurse is providing teaching on monitoring adverse effects. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Bone pain
- B. Constipation
- C. Tinnitus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bone pain. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for bone pain since it is a common adverse effect of filgrastim. This occurs due to increased bone marrow activity stimulated by the medication.
3. A client has a new prescription for Hydralazine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Hydralazine is a vasodilator that can cause reflex tachycardia as an adverse effect. The client should monitor their pulse and report any significant increases, as tachycardia can indicate a severe adverse reaction to the medication. Choice B, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Hydralazine. Choice C, Hyponatremia, and Choice D, Constipation, are also not typically associated with Hydralazine use. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Tachycardia.
4. A client has a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
- B. Avoid taking the medication with food.
- C. Expect to have increased urination.
- D. Take the medication with an antacid.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases the risk of bleeding. The client should monitor for any signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stool, and report them promptly to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choice B is incorrect because Clopidogrel can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increased urination is not a common side effect of Clopidogrel. Choice D is incorrect as taking Clopidogrel with an antacid may reduce its effectiveness.
5. During transfusion of a unit of whole blood, a nurse is assessing a client who develops a cough, shortness of breath, elevated blood pressure, and distended neck veins. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Epinephrine
- B. Lorazepam
- C. Furosemide
- D. Diphenhydramine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client's symptoms indicate circulatory overload, which can occur during blood transfusions. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is commonly prescribed in such cases to help relieve manifestations of circulatory overload by promoting diuresis and reducing fluid volume. Epinephrine is used for severe allergic reactions, lorazepam for anxiety or seizures, and diphenhydramine for mild allergic reactions or as a sedative. Therefore, the correct choice is Furosemide (C) to manage circulatory overload during a blood transfusion.
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