ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client is prescribed an IM dose of penicillin. She reports developing a rash after taking penicillin 3 years ago. What action should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the prescribed dose.
- B. Withhold the medication.
- C. Ask the provider to change the prescription to an oral form.
- D. Administer an oral antihistamine at the same time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The healthcare professional should withhold the medication and notify the provider of the client's previous reaction to penicillin. It is crucial to report any past allergic reactions to medications, as this information guides the provider in prescribing a safe alternative. Administering the prescribed dose without considering the client's history of developing a rash can lead to potentially severe adverse reactions. Changing the prescription to an oral form or administering an oral antihistamine does not address the risk of an allergic reaction to penicillin in this case.
2. A healthcare provider is providing teaching to a client who is starting therapy with paclitaxel. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Urinary retention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neutropenia. Paclitaxel commonly causes neutropenia due to bone marrow suppression. It is essential for clients receiving this medication to monitor for signs of neutropenia, such as fever, chills, and increased susceptibility to infections, as it can increase the risk of serious complications.
3. Which of the following drugs is associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
- A. Valproic acid
- B. Quinidine
- C. Isoniazid
- D. Ethosuximide
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe skin reaction that can be associated with Ethosuximide.
4. A client has a new prescription for Valsartan. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that can cause hyperkalemia by affecting the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. The nurse should closely monitor the client's potassium levels due to the risk of hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications. Choice B, hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Valsartan. Choice C, bradycardia, is not directly associated with Valsartan use. Choice D, hypercalcemia, is not a typical adverse effect of Valsartan.
5. While caring for a client receiving epoetin alfa to treat anemia, which finding should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Leukocytosis
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Fever
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for hypertension when receiving epoetin alfa. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which can lead to increased blood pressure. Leukocytosis (increased white blood cells) and hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) are not typically associated with epoetin alfa therapy. Fever is also not a common adverse effect of this medication.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access