ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client is prescribed an IM dose of penicillin. She reports developing a rash after taking penicillin 3 years ago. What action should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the prescribed dose.
- B. Withhold the medication.
- C. Ask the provider to change the prescription to an oral form.
- D. Administer an oral antihistamine at the same time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The healthcare professional should withhold the medication and notify the provider of the client's previous reaction to penicillin. It is crucial to report any past allergic reactions to medications, as this information guides the provider in prescribing a safe alternative. Administering the prescribed dose without considering the client's history of developing a rash can lead to potentially severe adverse reactions. Changing the prescription to an oral form or administering an oral antihistamine does not address the risk of an allergic reaction to penicillin in this case.
2. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for furosemide 40 mg PO daily. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Avoid foods rich in potassium.
- B. Take the medication with food.
- C. Weigh yourself daily.
- D. Stand up slowly to minimize orthostatic hypotension.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Stand up slowly to minimize orthostatic hypotension.' Clients prescribed furosemide are at risk for orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. Advising the client to stand up slowly can help prevent this complication. Instructing the client to avoid rapid position changes decreases the likelihood of dizziness or fainting episodes. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding potassium-rich foods, taking the medication with food, or daily weighing as specific instructions.
3. A client is starting a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Weigh yourself daily.
- C. Take potassium supplements as needed.
- D. Decrease intake of foods high in sodium.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, it is important to monitor for fluid loss. Weighing oneself daily helps track changes in weight due to fluid loss, which can indicate the effectiveness of the medication. This monitoring assists in managing fluid balance and adjusting the dosage if necessary to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because potassium supplements should only be taken if prescribed by a healthcare provider due to the risk of hyperkalemia with furosemide. Choice D is incorrect because decreasing sodium intake is generally a good dietary practice but not a specific instruction related to furosemide therapy.
4. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Warfarin, which herbal supplement should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. St. John's wort
- B. Echinacea
- C. Garlic
- D. Ginseng
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is St. John's wort. St. John's wort can reduce the effectiveness of Warfarin by interacting with its metabolism, potentially leading to decreased anticoagulant effects. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid using St. John's wort while taking Warfarin to prevent adverse drug interactions. Echinacea, garlic, and ginseng are not the correct answers in this case. While these herbal supplements may also interact with Warfarin and affect its efficacy, St. John's wort has a well-known interaction with Warfarin that can significantly impact its anticoagulant effects. Educating the client about the specific interaction between St. John's wort and Warfarin is crucial to ensure patient safety and the medication's therapeutic benefit.
5. When administering Amitriptyline to a client experiencing cancer pain, for which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Decreased appetite
- B. Explosive diarrhea
- C. Decreased pulse rate
- D. Orthostatic hypotension
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Question: When administering Amitriptyline to a client experiencing cancer pain, for which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor? Amitriptyline is known to cause orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when moving from lying down or sitting to a standing position. Monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is crucial to prevent falls and related injuries. Educating the client about moving slowly and changing positions gradually can help mitigate this adverse effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because decreased appetite, explosive diarrhea, and decreased pulse rate are not commonly associated with Amitriptyline use. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
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