ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client is prescribed an IM dose of penicillin. She reports developing a rash after taking penicillin 3 years ago. What action should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the prescribed dose.
- B. Withhold the medication.
- C. Ask the provider to change the prescription to an oral form.
- D. Administer an oral antihistamine at the same time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The healthcare professional should withhold the medication and notify the provider of the client's previous reaction to penicillin. It is crucial to report any past allergic reactions to medications, as this information guides the provider in prescribing a safe alternative. Administering the prescribed dose without considering the client's history of developing a rash can lead to potentially severe adverse reactions. Changing the prescription to an oral form or administering an oral antihistamine does not address the risk of an allergic reaction to penicillin in this case.
2. When should a blood sample be obtained for a peak serum level of gentamicin when administered by IV infusion for 1 hour at 0900?
- A. 1000
- B. 1030
- C. 1100
- D. 1130
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should obtain the blood sample for the peak serum level at 1030. This timing allows for 30 minutes to elapse after the completion of the 1-hour IV infusion, which is the recommended window for obtaining the peak serum level of gentamicin.
3. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Weight gain
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. This cough is a result of increased bradykinin levels due to ACE inhibition. The client should be educated to monitor for a dry cough and notify the healthcare provider if it occurs, as it may indicate the need for a medication adjustment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, diarrhea, and nausea are not commonly associated adverse effects of Enalapril.
4. A client is taking Desmopressin for Diabetes Insipidus. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypovolemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Agitation
- D. Headache
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Headache is an adverse effect that the nurse should monitor for in a client taking Desmopressin for Diabetes Insipidus. It can be an early sign of water intoxication, which is a potential complication of desmopressin therapy due to excessive water retention in the body.
5. A healthcare provider is planning to administer Ciprofloxacin IV to a client who has cystitis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Administer a concentrated solution.
- B. Infuse the medication over 60 min.
- C. Infuse the solution through the primary IV fluid tubing.
- D. Choose a small peripheral vein for administration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin should be infused over 60 minutes to minimize vein irritation and reduce the risk of adverse effects. Administering a concentrated solution can lead to vein irritation and potential complications. Infusing the solution through the primary IV fluid tubing can cause incompatibility issues. Choosing a small peripheral vein may not be suitable for administering Ciprofloxacin, which should be infused through a larger vein to prevent vein irritation and ensure a proper dilution of the medication.
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