Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed an IM dose of penicillin. She reports developing a rash after taking penicillin 3 years ago. What action should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the prescribed dose.
• B. Withhold the medication.
• C. Ask the provider to change the prescription to an oral form.
• D. Administer an oral antihistamine at the same time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The healthcare professional should withhold the medication and notify the provider of the client's previous reaction to penicillin. It is crucial to report any past allergic reactions to medications, as this information guides the provider in prescribing a safe alternative. Administering the prescribed dose without considering the client's history of developing a rash can lead to potentially severe adverse reactions. Changing the prescription to an oral form or administering an oral antihistamine does not address the risk of an allergic reaction to penicillin in this case.

2. What is the primary action of warfarin as an anticoagulant?

• A. Prevents the formation of blood clots
• B. Dissolves existing blood clots
• C. Dilates coronary arteries
• D. Treats rhythm disturbances

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Prevents the formation of blood clots." Warfarin acts as an anticoagulant by inhibiting the synthesis of certain clotting factors in the liver. This action reduces the blood's ability to clot, making it effective in preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice B is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots; it prevents their formation. Choice C is incorrect because warfarin's primary action is not to dilate coronary arteries. Choice D is incorrect as warfarin is not used to treat rhythm disturbances, but rather to prevent clot formation.

3. A client has a new prescription for Valsartan, and a nurse is providing discharge teaching. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Avoid potassium-rich foods.
• C. Expect to feel drowsy.
• D. Monitor your blood pressure daily.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring blood pressure daily is crucial for clients taking Valsartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker, to ensure effective management of hypertension. Valsartan helps lower blood pressure by relaxing blood vessels, and regular monitoring helps track the medication's effectiveness and any potential side effects. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Valsartan does not need to be taken with food, avoiding potassium-rich foods is not specifically required for this medication, and feeling drowsy is not a common side effect of Valsartan.

4. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating large amounts of green leafy vegetables.
• B. I will take my medication at the same time every day.
• C. I will increase my intake of foods high in potassium.
• D. I will report any signs of bleeding to my provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Warfarin interacts with vitamin K, not potassium. Therefore, the client needs to be cautious with foods high in vitamin K, such as green leafy vegetables, rather than foods high in potassium. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements regarding Warfarin therapy and do not indicate a need for further teaching.

5. A client has a new prescription for Albuterol and Beclomethasone inhalers for the control of asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take the albuterol at the same time each day.
• B. Administer the albuterol inhaler prior to using the beclomethasone inhaler.
• C. Use beclomethasone if experiencing an acute episode.
• D. Avoid shaking the beclomethasone before use.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed an inhaled beta2-agonist, such as albuterol, and an inhaled glucocorticoid, such as beclomethasone, for asthma control, the beta2-agonist should be administered first. This sequence is important because the beta2-agonist promotes bronchodilation, which enhances the absorption and effectiveness of the glucocorticoid. Instructing the client to administer the albuterol inhaler before using the beclomethasone inhaler ensures optimal therapeutic benefit. Therefore, option B is the correct choice. Option A is incorrect because the timing of albuterol administration may vary based on the prescribed regimen. Option C is incorrect because beclomethasone is a controller medication, not a rescue medication, and should not be used during acute episodes. Option D is incorrect because beclomethasone should be shaken before use to ensure proper dispersion of the medication.

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