ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. While caring for a client receiving Heparin therapy, which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. PT
- B. INR
- C. aPTT
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) when caring for a client receiving Heparin therapy. The aPTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin, which primarily affects this pathway by potentiating antithrombin III. Monitoring the aPTT helps ensure that the client's blood is within the therapeutic range to prevent thrombus formation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are used to monitor Warfarin therapy, not Heparin. Platelet count is important in assessing for thrombocytopenia but is not a specific indicator of Heparin therapy effectiveness.
2. A client has a new prescription for Valsartan, and a nurse is providing discharge teaching. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Avoid potassium-rich foods.
- C. Expect to feel drowsy.
- D. Monitor your blood pressure daily.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring blood pressure daily is crucial for clients taking Valsartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker, to ensure effective management of hypertension. Valsartan helps lower blood pressure by relaxing blood vessels, and regular monitoring helps track the medication's effectiveness and any potential side effects. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Valsartan does not need to be taken with food, avoiding potassium-rich foods is not specifically required for this medication, and feeling drowsy is not a common side effect of Valsartan.
3. What nursing interventions should you perform when a patient is on Albuterol? (Select all that apply)
- A. Assess lung sounds, pulse, and blood pressure before administering
- B. Monitor for changes in behavior
- C. Observe for paradoxical bronchospasms
- D. Both A and C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct nursing interventions to perform when a patient is on Albuterol include assessing the patient's lung sounds, pulse, and blood pressure before administering the medication to monitor for cardiovascular side effects like increased heart rate. Additionally, it is crucial to observe for paradoxical bronchospasms, a rare but serious adverse reaction where the medication causes a worsening of bronchospasm instead of relief. Monitoring for changes in behavior is not directly related to Albuterol administration and is not a standard nursing intervention for patients receiving this medication, making choice B incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it includes the essential nursing actions for patients on Albuterol.
4. When educating a client with a new prescription for Omeprazole to manage GERD, which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication before meals.
- B. You may need to take this medication for a long time.
- C. Increase your intake of vitamin C while taking this medication.
- D. Expect immediate relief of symptoms.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication before meals. Omeprazole should be taken before meals to ensure its effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production. This timing allows the medication to work on reducing acid secretion when the stomach is most actively producing it, leading to better control of symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because not all patients with GERD need to take Omeprazole for the rest of their lives; the duration of treatment varies. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to increase vitamin C intake while taking Omeprazole. Choice D is incorrect because Omeprazole may take a few days to start providing symptom relief, so immediate relief should not be expected.
5. A healthcare provider in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle-closure glaucoma. Which of the following findings are indicative of this condition?
- A. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision
- B. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision
- C. Severe pain around the eyes
- D. Intraocular pressure of 12mm Hg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Severe pain around the eyes that radiates over the face is a characteristic symptom of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This intense pain is typically accompanied by other symptoms such as blurred vision, halos around lights, redness in the eye, and sometimes nausea and vomiting. The acute rise in intraocular pressure leads to these symptoms, indicating a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent vision loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision is more suggestive of conditions like age-related macular degeneration or diabetic retinopathy. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision is commonly seen in conditions like open-angle glaucoma. An intraocular pressure of 12mm Hg is within the normal range and not indicative of the acute rise seen in angle-closure glaucoma.
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