ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A client is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Instruct the client to take deep, slow breaths.
- B. Administer an anti-anxiety medication.
- C. Remain with the client and offer reassurance.
- D. Encourage the client to use distraction techniques.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During a panic attack, the priority action for the nurse is to remain with the client and offer reassurance. This helps provide a sense of safety and security, which can aid in reducing the client's anxiety. Instructing the client to take deep, slow breaths (Choice A) can be beneficial but should come after providing immediate support. Administering medication (Choice B) should not be the first intervention unless deemed necessary by the healthcare provider. Encouraging distraction techniques (Choice D) may not be as effective initially as providing direct support and reassurance.
2. A nurse is creating a plan of care for a newly admitted client who has obsessive-compulsive disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?
- A. Allow the client enough time to perform rituals
- B. Give the client autonomy in scheduling activities
- C. Discourage the client from exploring irrational fears
- D. Provide negative reinforcement for ritualistic behaviors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder is to allow the client enough time to perform rituals. This helps manage anxiety and stress in individuals with OCD. Allowing time for rituals can provide a sense of control and reduce distress. Choice B, giving the client autonomy in scheduling activities, may not address the core symptoms of OCD related to rituals and compulsions. Choice C, discouraging the client from exploring irrational fears, goes against the principles of exposure therapy, which is a common treatment for OCD. Choice D, providing negative reinforcement for ritualistic behaviors, is not recommended as it can reinforce the behavior rather than help the client manage it.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has acute kidney injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dL
- B. Urine output of 45 mL/hr
- C. Serum creatinine 3.5 mg/dL
- D. Calcium 9 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Serum creatinine 3.5 mg/dL.' An elevated serum creatinine level indicates worsening kidney function and impaired renal clearance, which should be reported to the provider promptly. Choice A, 'Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dL,' is within the normal range (7-20 mg/dL) and does not indicate acute kidney injury. Choice B, 'Urine output of 45 mL/hr,' is a low urine output but does not directly reflect kidney function decline. Choice D, 'Calcium 9 mg/dL,' is within the normal calcium range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not specifically indicative of acute kidney injury.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has an external fetal monitor in place. The nurse observes late decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the cause of late decelerations?
- A. Fetal head compression
- B. Uteroplacental insufficiency
- C. Umbilical cord compression
- D. Fetal hypoxia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations in the fetal heart rate are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency, which results from inadequate blood flow to the placenta. This leads to reduced oxygen and nutrients reaching the fetus during contractions. Choice A, fetal head compression, does not typically cause late decelerations but can result in variable decelerations. Choice C, umbilical cord compression, usually leads to variable decelerations. Choice D, fetal hypoxia, is a broad term and not the direct cause of late decelerations, which are specifically linked to uteroplacental insufficiency.
5. A client reports intimate partner violence to a nurse. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Develop a safety plan with the client.
- B. Refer the client to a community support group.
- C. Determine if the client has any injuries.
- D. Ensure the client has access to legal services.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to develop a safety plan with the client. When a client reports intimate partner violence, the priority is ensuring their immediate safety. Developing a safety plan involves identifying safe places, emergency contacts, and strategies to protect the client from harm. Referring the client to a community support group (Choice B) can be helpful but not the immediate priority. While determining if the client has any injuries (Choice C) is important for assessing their physical well-being, the priority is to ensure their safety. Ensuring the client has access to legal services (Choice D) is crucial, but it is not the immediate priority when the client is at risk of violence.
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