Nursing Elites

1. A client is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Instruct the client to take deep, slow breaths.
• B. Administer an anti-anxiety medication.
• C. Remain with the client and offer reassurance.
• D. Encourage the client to use distraction techniques.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a panic attack, the priority action for the nurse is to remain with the client and offer reassurance. This helps provide a sense of safety and security, which can aid in reducing the client's anxiety. Instructing the client to take deep, slow breaths (Choice A) can be beneficial but should come after providing immediate support. Administering medication (Choice B) should not be the first intervention unless deemed necessary by the healthcare provider. Encouraging distraction techniques (Choice D) may not be as effective initially as providing direct support and reassurance.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Peripheral edema.
• B. Bradycardia.
• C. Jugular vein distention.
• D. Dependent edema.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Jugular vein distention is a classic sign of left-sided heart failure due to fluid overload in the pulmonary circulation. This occurs because the heart's left side is unable to pump effectively, causing increased pressure in the pulmonary veins and leading to blood backing up into the pulmonary circulation. Peripheral edema (choice A) and dependent edema (choice D) are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure where blood pools in the systemic circulation, causing swelling in the extremities. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typically a direct consequence of left-sided heart failure; instead, tachycardia is more commonly seen as the heart compensates for its reduced efficiency.

3. A client has deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer thrombolytics as prescribed.
• B. Massage the affected extremity every 2 hours.
• C. Apply warm compresses to the affected extremity.
• D. Place the client in a supine position with the legs elevated.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for a nurse caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to apply warm compresses to the affected extremity. Warm compresses help reduce swelling and pain in clients with DVT. Administering thrombolytics (Choice A) is not typically done without specific orders due to the risk of bleeding. Massaging the affected extremity (Choice B) can dislodge blood clots and lead to complications. Placing the client in a supine position with the legs elevated (Choice D) may increase the risk of clot dislodgment.

4. A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take my medication only when I feel dizzy.
• B. I will check my blood pressure at least once a week.
• C. I will limit my saturated fat intake to 7% of daily calories.
• D. I will take my medication only when I have symptoms.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because limiting saturated fat intake to 7% of daily calories is a crucial component of the dietary management for hypertension. This dietary modification helps reduce the risk of cardiovascular complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because medication adherence should not be based on symptoms like dizziness. Choice B is inadequate as blood pressure monitoring should be more frequent, preferably daily, for effective management of hypertension. Choice D is incorrect because medication for hypertension should be taken consistently as prescribed, not just when symptoms occur.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following a hip replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate 90/min.
• B. WBC count 15,000/mm3.
• C. Urinary output 75 mL in the past 4 hours.
• D. Temperature 37.8°C (100°F).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated WBC count 48 hours postoperatively may indicate an infection and should be reported to the provider. Choice A, a heart rate of 90/min, is within normal limits and not a concerning finding postoperatively. Choice C, urinary output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours, may indicate decreased renal perfusion, but an elevated WBC count is a more urgent finding. Choice D, a temperature of 37.8°C (100°F), which is slightly elevated, could be indicative of the body's normal response to surgery and is not as alarming as an elevated WBC count.

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