Nursing Elites

1. When starting therapy with trastuzumab, which finding should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Constipation
• C. Tinnitus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dyspnea. Dyspnea can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect of trastuzumab. It is crucial for the client to report any breathing difficulties promptly to ensure timely intervention and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not commonly associated with trastuzumab therapy and are not indicative of serious adverse effects that require immediate attention.

2. A client has a new prescription for Allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Increase your fluid intake.
• C. Avoid foods high in calcium.
• D. Take this medication with meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Allopurinol can cause kidney stones due to the formation of uric acid crystals, so it is crucial for the client to increase their fluid intake. Adequate hydration helps to prevent the formation of kidney stones by diluting the urine and promoting the excretion of uric acid. Therefore, advising the client to increase their fluid intake is essential in preventing this adverse effect while taking Allopurinol.

3. When starting therapy with bicalutamide, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Muscle pain
• B. Flushing
• C. Gynecomastia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gynecomastia. Bicalutamide, due to its antiandrogenic properties, can lead to gynecomastia in clients. This condition involves the development of breast tissue in males and is an important adverse effect to monitor when taking this medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Muscle pain and flushing are not commonly associated with bicalutamide use. Hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of bicalutamide therapy.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who takes Desmopressin for Diabetes Insipidus. For which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Hypovolemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Agitation
• D. Headache

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Headache. Headache during desmopressin therapy can indicate water intoxication, which is a potential adverse effect. Desmopressin is a medication used to treat Diabetes Insipidus by reducing excessive urination and thirst. Monitoring for headaches is crucial as it can signal decreased sodium levels due to water retention, leading to water intoxication, which is a serious concern. Hypovolemia, hypercalcemia, and agitation are not typically associated with desmopressin therapy for Diabetes Insipidus.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the provider monitor?

• A. Urinary retention
• B. Tachypnea
• C. Hypertension
• D. Irritating cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the awareness of bladder fullness, leading to urinary retention. This complication can result in significant discomfort and potential urinary tract issues if not promptly addressed. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is a common side effect of opioids but is not a specific complication related to urinary retention. Hypertension is not typically associated with opioid agonists and is more commonly seen with opioid antagonists. An irritating cough is not a known complication of opioid agonists and is not directly related to the effect opioids have on the urinary system.

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