Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of a client who has a prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. Previous history of thromboembolism
• B. Concurrent use of an antacid
• C. History of bronchial asthma
• D. Recent weight gain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated for clients with a history of bronchial asthma. Reporting a history of bronchial asthma to the provider is crucial as it would prompt a review of the medication prescription to avoid potential adverse effects and consider alternative treatment options.

2. What is the therapeutic use of metformin?

• A. Lower blood pressure
• B. Diminish seizure activity
• C. The maintenance of a person's blood glucose levels
• D. Increase heart rate and decrease gastrointestinal secretions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Metformin is commonly prescribed to manage and control blood glucose levels in individuals with diabetes. It helps in reducing the amount of glucose produced by the liver and improves the body's response to insulin, thereby aiding in the regulation of blood sugar levels. It is not used to lower blood pressure, diminish seizure activity, increase heart rate, or decrease gastrointestinal secretions.

3. A client is admitted for a surgical procedure. Which of the following preexisting conditions can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an intravenous anesthetic?

• A. Peptic ulcer disease
• B. Breast cancer
• C. Diabetes mellitus
• D. Schizophrenia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ketamine is known to produce psychological effects, such as hallucinations. Therefore, individuals with schizophrenia are at increased risk of experiencing exacerbation of their symptoms if given Ketamine, making it a contraindication for its use as an intravenous anesthetic. Peptic ulcer disease, breast cancer, and diabetes mellitus are not contraindications for Ketamine use as an intravenous anesthetic.

4. A client has a prescription for Bethanechol to treat urinary retention. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Hypertension
• C. Excessive perspiration
• D. Fecal impaction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Excessive perspiration. Bethanechol is a muscarinic agonist that stimulates muscarinic receptors. Activation of muscarinic receptors can lead to excessive perspiration (diaphoresis) due to increased cholinergic activity, affecting sweat glands. Dry mouth, hypertension, and fecal impaction are not typically associated with muscarinic stimulation. Dry mouth is more commonly associated with anticholinergic medications, hypertension can be a result of alpha-adrenergic stimulation, and fecal impaction is not a direct effect of muscarinic receptor activation.

5. A client has a new prescription for Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take one tablet every 15 minutes until pain is relieved.
• B. Take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three doses.
• C. Take one tablet at bedtime.
• D. Take one tablet on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct administration of Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets involves taking one tablet at the onset of chest pain and repeating every 5 minutes for up to three doses. This protocol helps in managing angina episodes effectively. Choice A suggests taking a tablet every 15 minutes until pain relief, which may delay appropriate intervention. Choice C, taking a tablet at bedtime, is not suitable for immediate relief during angina attacks. Choice D, taking a tablet on an empty stomach, is unrelated to the correct administration of Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets.

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