Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of a client who has a prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. Previous history of thromboembolism
• B. Concurrent use of an antacid
• C. History of bronchial asthma
• D. Recent weight gain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated for clients with a history of bronchial asthma. Reporting a history of bronchial asthma to the provider is crucial as it would prompt a review of the medication prescription to avoid potential adverse effects and consider alternative treatment options.

2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin patches, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch at the same time every day.
• B. Rotate the application site daily.
• C. Remove the patch for 12 hours each day.
• D. Cut the patch in half if needed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin patches is to rotate the application site daily. This is important to prevent skin irritation and ensure optimal absorption of the medication. Applying the patch at the same time every day (Choice A) is not necessary for nitroglycerin patches. Removing the patch for 12 hours each day (Choice C) would disrupt the continuous delivery of medication. Cutting the patch in half (Choice D) can alter the dose and is not recommended unless directed by a healthcare provider.

3. A client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?

• A. Ondansetron
• B. Metoclopramide
• C. Promethazine
• D. Lorazepam

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ondansetron. Ondansetron is a commonly used antiemetic for managing nausea and vomiting in clients undergoing chemotherapy. It works by blocking serotonin to reduce these symptoms effectively. Metoclopramide (choice B) is another antiemetic but is more commonly used for gastric motility disorders. Promethazine (choice C) is an antihistamine with antiemetic properties, but ondansetron is often preferred for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting due to its efficacy and fewer side effects. Lorazepam (choice D) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and insomnia, not typically for managing nausea and vomiting in this context.

4. When caring for a client prescribed Digoxin, which finding should the nurse monitor to assess for potential toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a cardiac glycoside, can lead to toxic effects such as bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client's heart rate for any significant decreases, as this could indicate Digoxin toxicity and prompt further intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Digoxin toxicity typically presents with bradycardia, not hypertension, hypoglycemia, or hypercalcemia.

5. While teaching a client starting therapy with rituximab, which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Fever
• C. Urinary frequency
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever. The nurse should instruct the client to report fever as it can be an indication of an infection, which is a potential complication of rituximab therapy. Monitoring for fever is crucial to promptly address any signs of infection and ensure the client's safety during treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with rituximab therapy and are less likely to be directly related to a serious complication requiring immediate attention.

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