Nursing Elites

1. A client is starting therapy with cisplatin, and a healthcare provider is providing education. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider instruct the client to report?

• A. Tinnitus
• B. Nausea
• C. Constipation
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tinnitus. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to report tinnitus, as it can be an indication of ototoxicity, an adverse effect associated with cisplatin therapy. Ototoxicity is damage to the inner ear structures that can lead to hearing loss, making it crucial for the client to report any early signs such as tinnitus to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning in the context of cisplatin therapy. Nausea and constipation are common side effects of cisplatin but are not typically indicative of serious complications requiring immediate reporting. Weight gain is not a typical side effect associated with cisplatin therapy and is less likely to be related to the medication.

2. Which of the following is classified as a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

• A. Quinidine
• B. Disopyramide
• C. Aminodarone
• D. Propafenone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Quinidine is classified as a class IA sodium channel blocker. Class IA antiarrhythmics, like quinidine, work by blocking sodium channels and delaying repolarization. Propafenone, mentioned in the original rationale, is actually a class IC antiarrhythmic agent, not a class IA sodium channel blocker.

3. While caring for a client taking Propylthiouracil, for which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Insomnia
• C. Heat intolerance
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is taking Propylthiouracil, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as it is an adverse effect of this medication. Propylthiouracil can lead to a decrease in heart rate, which is known as bradycardia. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being while on this medication. The other options, such as insomnia, heat intolerance, and weight loss, are not commonly associated adverse effects of Propylthiouracil. Therefore, they are incorrect choices for monitoring while the client is on this medication.

4. Which of the following is NOT an opioid or NSAID?

• A. Morphine
• B. Ibuprofen
• C. Hydromorphone
• D. Acetaminophen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the correct answer as it is not classified as an opioid or NSAID. Acetaminophen is considered a non-opioid analgesic, which means it works by a different mechanism than opioids and NSAIDs to relieve pain and reduce fever. Morphine, hydromorphone, and ibuprofen, on the other hand, are classified as opioids or NSAIDs. Morphine and hydromorphone are opioids, while ibuprofen is an NSAID (Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug), all of which work through different mechanisms compared to acetaminophen.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IV antibiotic to a client who has a systemic infection. Which of the following actions should the professional take first?

• A. Administer an antihistamine prior to the antibiotic.
• B. Monitor the client's urine output.
• C. Check the client's allergy history.
• D. Assess the client's vital signs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The first action the healthcare professional should take is to check the client's allergy history before administering the antibiotic to prevent a potential allergic reaction. It is crucial to identify any known allergies to antibiotics to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Administering an antihistamine prior to the antibiotic (Choice A) is not recommended unless an allergic reaction occurs. Monitoring the client's urine output (Choice B) and assessing the client's vital signs (Choice D) are important but not the first step in this situation. Checking the client's allergy history takes precedence to prevent adverse reactions.

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