ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A nurse is assessing a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dl. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Loose stools.
- B. Jitteriness.
- C. Hypertonia.
- D. Abdominal distention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Jitteriness is a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns. Choice A, 'Loose stools,' is not typically associated with hypoglycemia in newborns. Choice C, 'Hypertonia,' is not a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns; instead, hypotonia may be observed. Choice D, 'Abdominal distention,' is not a typical manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns.
2. A client with a nasogastric tube receiving intermittent enteral feedings should be positioned in which way?
- A. Flush the tube with 15 mL of sterile water before feedings.
- B. Place the client in a supine position during feedings.
- C. Position the client with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees.
- D. Check gastric residuals every 8 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Positioning the client with the head of the bed elevated at 45 degrees is crucial during enteral feedings to prevent aspiration. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of feedings into the lungs. Option A is not necessary before feedings. Placing the client in a supine position (Option B) increases the risk of aspiration. Checking gastric residuals every 8 hours (Option D) is important but not directly related to positioning during enteral feedings.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is a common concern for patients on loop diuretics?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Loop diuretics can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This imbalance is a common concern because potassium plays a vital role in various physiological functions, including maintaining proper heart function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because loop diuretics typically do not cause hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, or hypercalcemia.
4. A client has a stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Cleanse the wound with povidone-iodine solution daily.
- B. Irrigate the wound with hydrogen peroxide.
- C. Reposition the client every 4 hours.
- D. Apply a moisture barrier ointment.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a stage 3 pressure injury is to apply a moisture barrier ointment. This helps protect the skin, maintain moisture balance, and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because povidone-iodine solution can be too harsh for wound care. Choice B is incorrect as hydrogen peroxide can be cytotoxic to healing tissue. Choice C is important for preventing pressure injuries but is not a direct intervention for a stage 3 wound.
5. A client is being taught about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. This medication will decrease my potassium levels.
- B. I should eat a banana every day to increase my potassium intake.
- C. I will stop taking this medication if I experience a cough.
- D. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking furosemide should avoid alcohol because it can lead to dehydration and potential interactions with the medication. Choices A and B are incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so the client should not expect an increase in potassium levels or solely rely on bananas for potassium intake. Choice C is incorrect because a cough is not a common side effect of furosemide and should not be a reason to stop taking the medication.
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