ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client on glucocorticoid therapy is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I have my eyes examined annually.
- B. I take a calcium vitamin supplement daily.
- C. I limit my intake of foods with potassium.
- D. I consistently take my medication between 8 and 9 each evening.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking a calcium supplement daily is crucial for clients on glucocorticoid therapy to prevent osteoporosis, a common side effect of long-term use. Choice A is unrelated to glucocorticoid therapy. Choice C, limiting potassium intake, is not necessary for clients on glucocorticoids. Choice D, taking medication consistently in the evening, is important but does not specifically address the side effects of glucocorticoid therapy.
2. A client is prescribed albuterol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication before meals.
- B. You might experience tremors while taking this medication.
- C. Limit your caffeine intake while taking this medication.
- D. Take this medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Albuterol can cause tremors as a common side effect. Instructing the client about this potential side effect is crucial for their awareness and preparedness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking albuterol before meals, limiting caffeine intake, or taking it at bedtime are not specific instructions related to managing the side effects of albuterol like tremors.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 88/min
- B. Pain rating of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
- C. Respiratory rate of 10/min
- D. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates respiratory depression, a serious adverse effect of morphine that should be reported immediately. Options A, B, and D are within acceptable ranges and not indicative of life-threatening complications when administering morphine.
4. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis
- B. Administer flumazenil to the client
- C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior
- D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In cases of benzodiazepine overdose, such as diazepam ingestion, flumazenil is the antidote. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to administer flumazenil to the client. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (Choice A) is important but not the immediate priority. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (Choice C) is important but not the next immediate action. Initiating seizure precautions (Choice D) is not the priority as the client's airway has already been secured.
5. What is the best initial action when a patient presents with confusion?
- A. Administer IV fluids
- B. Perform a neurological assessment
- C. Administer electrolytes
- D. Prepare for a CT scan
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient presents with confusion, the best initial action is to perform a neurological assessment. This assessment helps in identifying potential causes of confusion such as neurological issues, infections, metabolic abnormalities, or medication side effects. Administering IV fluids (Choice A) may be necessary based on assessment findings, but it is not the first step. Administering electrolytes (Choice C) would also depend on the assessment results. Preparing for a CT scan (Choice D) may be indicated later in the diagnostic process but is not the initial action when a patient presents with confusion.
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