ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client on glucocorticoid therapy is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I have my eyes examined annually.
- B. I take a calcium vitamin supplement daily.
- C. I limit my intake of foods with potassium.
- D. I consistently take my medication between 8 and 9 each evening.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking a calcium supplement daily is crucial for clients on glucocorticoid therapy to prevent osteoporosis, a common side effect of long-term use. Choice A is unrelated to glucocorticoid therapy. Choice C, limiting potassium intake, is not necessary for clients on glucocorticoids. Choice D, taking medication consistently in the evening, is important but does not specifically address the side effects of glucocorticoid therapy.
2. How should a healthcare professional monitor for infection in a patient with a central line?
- A. Check the central line dressing daily
- B. Monitor for signs of redness
- C. Check for abnormal breath sounds
- D. Monitor temperature
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct answer: A. Checking the central line dressing daily is crucial to monitor for signs of infection around the insertion site. This practice helps in early detection of any changes such as redness, swelling, or discharge, which are indicators of a potential infection. Monitoring for signs of redness (choice B) is limited as redness alone may not always indicate an infection; other symptoms like discharge and tenderness should also be observed. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (choice C) is not directly related to monitoring central line infections. Monitoring temperature (choice D) is important for detecting systemic signs of infection but may not specifically indicate an infection related to the central line site.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial in patients on furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to furosemide therapy; therefore, they are incorrect choices.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a hemolytic transfusion reaction?
- A. Low back pain.
- B. Bradycardia.
- C. Chills.
- D. Distended neck veins.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Low back pain. Low back pain is a common sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction, indicating the destruction of red blood cells. This finding requires immediate intervention as it can lead to serious complications such as renal failure. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typically associated with a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Chills (choice C) can be seen in febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions. Distended neck veins (choice D) are more indicative of fluid overload rather than a hemolytic reaction.
5. Which medication is used to manage hyperthyroidism?
- A. Levothyroxine
- B. Methimazole
- C. Propylthiouracil
- D. Prednisone
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Methimazole is the correct answer. It is commonly used to manage hyperthyroidism by inhibiting the production of thyroid hormones. Levothyroxine (Choice A) is actually a medication used to treat hypothyroidism by supplementing thyroid hormones. Propylthiouracil (Choice C) is another anti-thyroid medication used in the management of hyperthyroidism. Prednisone (Choice D) is a corticosteroid and is not typically used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism.
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