Nursing Elites

1. A client with bipolar disorder and experiencing mania is under the care of a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Encourage the client to spend time in the day room.
• B. Withdraw the client's TV privileges if they do not attend group therapy.
• C. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods.
• D. Place the client in seclusion when they exhibit signs of anxiety.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods is an appropriate intervention for managing mania in a client with bipolar disorder. During a manic episode, individuals often have increased energy levels, decreased need for sleep, and may engage in high-risk behaviors. Encouraging regular rest periods can help reduce stimulation and promote relaxation, which may assist in stabilizing mood. Choices A and B are not as effective in managing manic symptoms, as they do not directly address the client's need for rest and relaxation. Choice D is inappropriate because placing the client in seclusion can increase feelings of anxiety and agitation, worsening the manic episode.

2. A nurse is preparing to apply a transdermal nicotine patch for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Shave hairy areas of skin prior to application.
• B. Wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin.
• C. Apply the patch within 1 hr of removing it from the protective pouch.
• D. Remove the previous patch and place it in a tissue.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin. This action ensures that the nurse does not absorb any medication through their own skin, promoting safety. Choice A is incorrect because shaving is not necessary and could irritate the skin. Choice C is incorrect because transdermal patches should be applied immediately after removal from the protective pouch to maintain their efficacy. Choice D is incorrect because used patches should be folded and discarded safely according to facility protocols.

3. A client with heart failure at risk for pulmonary edema should receive which intervention to improve oxygenation?

• A. Place the client in a supine position.
• B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• C. Elevate the client's legs when in bed.
• D. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for pulmonary edema as it helps improve oxygenation by delivering a high concentration of oxygen. Placing the client in a supine position can exacerbate pulmonary edema by increasing venous return to the heart, leading to fluid overload. Encouraging increased fluid intake is contraindicated in clients with heart failure and at risk for pulmonary edema, as it can worsen fluid accumulation. Elevating the client's legs when in bed is more appropriate for clients with conditions such as venous insufficiency or edema in the lower extremities, not for pulmonary edema.

4. A nurse is caring for a toddler who has acute lymphocytic leukemia. In which of the following activities should the toddler participate?

• A. Looking at alphabet flashcards
• B. Playing with a large plastic truck
• C. Using scissors to cut out paper shapes
• D. Watching a cartoon in the dayroom

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is playing with a large plastic truck. This activity is suitable for toddlers as it promotes their development, encourages fine motor skills, and provides an opportunity for imaginative play. Looking at alphabet flashcards may be more suitable for older children who are learning letters and words. Using scissors to cut out paper shapes may pose a safety risk for a toddler, as they may not have the dexterity or understanding required for this activity. Watching a cartoon in the dayroom is a passive activity and does not actively engage the toddler in physical or cognitive development.

5. A client is experiencing mild anxiety. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Feelings of dread
• B. Heightened perceptual field
• C. Rapid speech
• D. Purposeless activity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients experiencing mild anxiety, a heightened perceptual field is a common finding. This means that the individual may be more alert and observant of their surroundings, sometimes to the point of being hyper-aware. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to be associated with mild anxiety. Feelings of dread (Choice A) are more commonly seen in moderate to severe anxiety. Rapid speech (Choice C) may be observed in some cases of anxiety, but it is not a specific hallmark of mild anxiety. Purposeless activity (Choice D) is more indicative of severe anxiety or other mental health conditions.

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