a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has schizophrenia and is starting therapy with clozapine which of the following is the highest
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A client with schizophrenia starting therapy with clozapine is being discharged. Which symptom should the client report to the provider as the highest priority?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. When a client is taking clozapine, fever can indicate serious conditions such as infection or severe reactions, which need immediate medical attention. Constipation (choice A), blurred vision (choice B), and dry mouth (choice D) are common side effects of clozapine but are not as urgent as fever. Constipation can be managed with dietary changes or medications, blurred vision can improve over time, and dry mouth can be relieved with frequent sips of water.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has been prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check your pulse before taking this medication.' When a patient is prescribed digoxin, it is crucial to monitor their pulse rate because digoxin can cause bradycardia (slow heart rate) as a side effect. In contrast, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking digoxin with meals is not necessary; it should be taken consistently at the same time every day. Taking digoxin with an antacid is not recommended as it can interfere with the absorption of the medication. While digoxin can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels), patients should not increase their potassium intake without healthcare provider guidance to avoid potential complications.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to family members of a client who has dementia. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Establish a toileting schedule for the client. A toileting schedule helps manage incontinence and prevent accidents, promoting client dignity. Choice B is incorrect because clothing with buttons and zippers may be difficult for a client with dementia to manage independently. Choice C is incorrect as physical activity during the day is beneficial for clients with dementia. Choice D is incorrect as activities that increase sensory stimulation may be overwhelming for a client with dementia.

4. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient receiving IV potassium?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is receiving IV potassium, it is crucial to monitor the IV site. Potassium can be irritating to the veins and may cause phlebitis or infiltration. Monitoring the IV site allows early detection of any potential complications. Checking urine output (Choice A) is important to assess kidney function but is not directly related to monitoring IV potassium. Blood pressure (Choice B) and respiratory rate (Choice D) are essential vital signs to monitor in general patient care but are not specific to monitoring IV potassium administration.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for preventing pressure ulcers in a client at risk is to turn the client every 2 hours. This helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, improving circulation and preventing tissue damage. Using a donut-shaped cushion can actually increase pressure on the skin and worsen the risk of pressure ulcers. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is beneficial for preventing aspiration in some cases but does not directly address pressure ulcer prevention. Massaging reddened areas can further damage the skin and increase the risk of pressure ulcer development by causing friction and shearing forces.

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