Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the history of a client who is requesting combination oral contraceptives. Which condition in the client's history is a contraindication?

• A. Hyperthyroidism.
• B. Thrombophlebitis.
• C. Diverticulosis.
• D. Hypocalcemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thrombophlebitis is a contraindication for the use of combination oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of thromboembolic events such as deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. Hyperthyroidism, diverticulosis, and hypocalcemia are not typically contraindications for using combination oral contraceptives, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

2. A client with liver cirrhosis is experiencing confusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL
• B. Ammonia 145 mcg/dL
• C. Albumin 4 g/dL
• D. Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ammonia 145 mcg/dL. An elevated ammonia level can indicate hepatic encephalopathy in clients with liver cirrhosis, leading to confusion. Bilirubin (Choice A) is within the normal range, indicating adequate liver function. Albumin (Choice C) and Hemoglobin (Choice D) levels are also within normal limits and are not directly related to the client's confusion in this scenario.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a complication of GERD?

• A. Hematemesis.
• B. Melena.
• C. Pallor.
• D. Steatorrhea.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hematemesis. Hematemesis (vomiting blood) is a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding and a serious complication of GERD. Melena (black, tarry stool) is also a sign of GI bleeding but is not as specific to GERD as hematemesis. Pallor may be present due to anemia from chronic blood loss, but it is not a direct complication of GERD. Steatorrhea is not typically associated with GERD; it is more indicative of malabsorption issues.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has hypertension about monitoring blood pressure at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use a cuff that is too loose for the arm.
• B. Place the cuff over clothing.
• C. Sit quietly for 5 minutes before measuring your blood pressure.
• D. Use the same arm for each reading.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to sit quietly for 5 minutes before measuring their blood pressure. This allows the body to relax and stabilize, leading to a more accurate reading. Choice A is incorrect because using a cuff that is too loose can result in inaccurate readings. Choice B is incorrect as the cuff should be placed directly on the bare skin. Choice D is incorrect as using the same arm for each reading is important for consistency in monitoring, but sitting quietly before measuring is crucial for accuracy.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube and notes continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Continue to monitor the client.
• B. Clamp the chest tube.
• C. Replace the drainage system.
• D. Apply a dressing over the insertion site.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when continuous bubbling is noted in the water seal chamber of a chest tube is to apply a dressing over the insertion site. Continuous bubbling indicates an air leak, and applying a dressing helps manage this issue by providing a seal. Clamping the chest tube or replacing the drainage system is not appropriate in this situation as it can lead to complications such as tension pneumothorax or inadequate drainage of the pleural space.

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