ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A client with iron deficiency anemia has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take with a glass of milk to prevent stomach upset.
- B. Take with orange juice to enhance absorption.
- C. Take on an empty stomach to increase absorption.
- D. Take with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction is to take ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach to increase absorption. This is because taking it with food or dairy products like milk can reduce its absorption. Orange juice is not recommended as it may interfere with the absorption of iron. Taking ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach may cause gastrointestinal upset, but this can be minimized by gradually increasing the dose.
2. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient on furosemide for fluid balance?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Check for edema
- C. Monitor input and output
- D. Monitor blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring a patient's daily weight is crucial when assessing fluid balance in individuals prescribed furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body eliminate excess fluid and salt. Changes in weight can reflect fluid shifts, making daily weight monitoring a reliable indicator of fluid status. While checking for edema and monitoring input and output are essential aspects of fluid balance assessment, they may not provide as immediate and quantifiable information as daily weight measurements. Monitoring blood pressure is important in patients on furosemide due to its potential to affect blood pressure levels, but it is not as directly indicative of fluid balance as daily weight monitoring.
3. A nurse is teaching a group of newly licensed nurses about measures to take when caring for a client who is on contact precautions. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Remove the protective gown after leaving the client's room
- B. Place the client in a room with positive pressure
- C. Wear gloves when providing care to the client
- D. Wear a mask when entering the client's room
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct measure to include when caring for a client on contact precautions is to wear gloves when providing care. Gloves help prevent the spread of infection and cross-contamination. Choice A is incorrect because the protective gown should be removed before leaving the client's room to prevent the spread of pathogens. Choice B is incorrect as clients on contact precautions should be in a room with negative pressure to prevent the spread of airborne contaminants. Choice D is incorrect as wearing a mask when changing linens is not specifically required for contact precautions.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client scheduled for a CT scan with contrast media. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as a contraindication to the procedure?
- A. White blood cell count of 6,000/mm³
- B. Urine specific gravity of 1.025
- C. History of asthma
- D. History of allergy to shellfish
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, a history of allergy to shellfish. A known allergy to shellfish is a contraindication for the use of contrast media in a CT scan due to the potential risk of an allergic reaction, which could be severe and life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications to the procedure. A normal white blood cell count, urine specific gravity within the normal range, and a history of asthma do not typically interfere with the administration of contrast media for a CT scan.
5. Nurses caring for four clients. Which of the following client data should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. A client who has pleurisy and reports pain of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10 when coughing
- B. Client drained a total of 110 mL of serosanguineous fluid from the Jackson Pratt drain within the first 24 hours following surgery
- C. Client who is 4 hours postoperative and has a heart rate of 98 per minute
- D. The client has a prescription for chemotherapy and an absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client with chemotherapy and a low neutrophil count is at risk for infection and requires prompt intervention. Reporting this information to the provider is crucial to ensure appropriate monitoring and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate risk that requires immediate provider notification. A client reporting pain with pleurisy, a client draining fluid post-surgery, or a client with a heart rate of 98 per minute postoperative are not urgent enough to warrant immediate reporting compared to the client at risk for infection.
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