a nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets and has a respiratory rate of 10min after secur
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets and has a respiratory rate of 10/min. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (choice A) is important but not the next immediate action. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (choice C) is important but not the priority at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions (choice D) is not the priority action in this scenario.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric tube in place. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to prevent aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube is to elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings. This positioning helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Placing the client in the left lateral position after feedings does not directly prevent aspiration. Flushing the tube with sterile water before each feeding is important for tube patency but does not specifically prevent aspiration. Checking gastric residuals every 8 hours is necessary to monitor the client's tolerance to feedings but is not a direct preventive measure against aspiration.

3. A client has a new diagnosis of COPD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is a beneficial technique for clients with COPD as it helps control shortness of breath and improves oxygenation. This technique involves inhaling slowly through the nose and exhaling through pursed lips, which helps keep airways open. Option A is incorrect as breathing rapidly through the mouth when using the incentive spirometer can lead to hyperventilation. Option C is incorrect because it is important for clients with COPD to stay hydrated by drinking fluids between meals, but not during meals which can cause bloating and discomfort. Option D is incorrect as diaphragmatic breathing, though beneficial, is not the preferred technique for managing dyspnea in COPD; pursed-lip breathing is more effective.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "I will avoid aspirin while taking this medication." Clients taking warfarin should avoid aspirin due to the increased risk of bleeding. Choice B is incorrect because increasing the intake of green leafy vegetables high in Vitamin K can interfere with the effects of warfarin. Choice C is incorrect because warfarin should not be taken with antacids as they can decrease its absorption. Choice D is incorrect because mild bruising is a common side effect of warfarin due to its anticoagulant properties.

5. A client on glucocorticoid therapy is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking a calcium supplement daily is crucial for clients on glucocorticoid therapy to prevent osteoporosis, a common side effect of long-term use. Choice A is unrelated to glucocorticoid therapy. Choice C, limiting potassium intake, is not necessary for clients on glucocorticoids. Choice D, taking medication consistently in the evening, is important but does not specifically address the side effects of glucocorticoid therapy.

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