Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets and has a respiratory rate of 10/min. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?

• A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis
• B. Administer flumazenil to the client
• C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior
• D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (choice A) is important but not the next immediate action. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (choice C) is important but not the priority at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions (choice D) is not the priority action in this scenario.

2. How should a healthcare professional assess for fluid overload in a patient with heart failure?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Check for edema
• C. Monitor blood pressure
• D. Check oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is the most accurate way to assess fluid overload in patients with heart failure. In heart failure, the body retains excess fluid, leading to weight gain. Monitoring daily weight allows healthcare professionals to track fluid retention accurately. Checking for edema (Choice B) is a valuable assessment technique, but it may not be as sensitive as monitoring daily weight. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice C) is essential in managing heart failure, but it is not the most accurate way to assess fluid overload. Checking oxygen saturation (Choice D) is important to assess respiratory status but is not directly related to fluid overload in heart failure.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication over 30 minutes.
• B. Monitor the client for a decrease in blood pressure during administration.
• C. Assess the IV site for infiltration during administration.
• D. Premedicate the client with an antiemetic prior to administration.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering vancomycin IV is to assess the IV site for infiltration during administration. Vancomycin is known to cause tissue damage if it infiltrates, making close monitoring crucial. Administering the medication over 30 minutes (Choice A) is a common practice but not the priority in preventing infiltration. Monitoring for a decrease in blood pressure (Choice B) is not directly related to vancomycin administration. Premedicating with an antiemetic (Choice D) is not typically required for vancomycin administration.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin IV to a client who has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication over 60 minutes
• B. Monitor the client's blood glucose level during administration
• C. Infuse the medication rapidly to reduce the risk of infection
• D. Administer the medication using a filter needle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to administer the medication over 60 minutes. This is important because administering vancomycin over 60 minutes helps prevent red man syndrome, a reaction that can occur with rapid infusion. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level (Choice B) is unrelated to vancomycin administration. Infusing the medication rapidly (Choice C) is incorrect and can lead to adverse reactions. Administering the medication using a filter needle (Choice D) is unnecessary for vancomycin administration.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is requesting combination oral contraceptives. Which of the following conditions in the client's history is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives?

• A. Hyperthyroidism.
• B. Thrombophlebitis.
• C. Diverticulosis.
• D. Hypocalcemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thrombophlebitis is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of complications such as thromboembolism. Hyperthyroidism, diverticulosis, and hypocalcemia are not contraindications for oral contraceptives. Hyperthyroidism may affect the metabolism of contraceptives but does not contraindicate their use. Diverticulosis and hypocalcemia do not directly impact the safety or effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

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