ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets and has a respiratory rate of 10/min. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?
- A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis
- B. Administer flumazenil to the client
- C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior
- D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (choice A) is important but not the next immediate action. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (choice C) is important but not the priority at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions (choice D) is not the priority action in this scenario.
2. What is the most important nursing action for a patient post-surgery?
- A. Monitor vital signs
- B. Monitor the surgical site
- C. Check blood pressure
- D. Check oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most crucial nursing action for a patient post-surgery is to monitor vital signs. Monitoring vital signs helps in detecting early signs of complications such as hemorrhage, shock, or infection. While monitoring the surgical site is important for assessing wound healing and signs of infection, it is secondary to monitoring vital signs. Checking blood pressure and oxygen saturation are also important, but they are components of monitoring vital signs.
3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
- B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
- C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
- D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide can cause low potassium levels, and clients should be advised to rise slowly to prevent dizziness.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride.
- B. Verify the client's blood type and Rh factor.
- C. Administer the blood over 8 hours.
- D. Use a 22-gauge needle for venous access.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood type and Rh factor. This action is crucial to ensure that the correct blood is administered, matching the client's blood type and Rh factor, which helps prevent transfusion reactions. Priming the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice A) is not directly related to ensuring the correct blood product is administered. Administering the blood over 8 hours (Choice C) is not the standard practice for packed RBCs, which are usually given over a shorter period. Using a 22-gauge needle for venous access (Choice D) is not specific to the preparation for administering packed RBCs.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the orientation phase of the therapeutic relationship. Which statement should the nurse make during this phase?
- A. Let's talk about how you can change your response to stress.
- B. We should establish our roles in the initial session.
- C. Let me show you simple relaxation exercises to manage stress.
- D. We should discuss resources to implement in your daily life.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During the orientation phase of the therapeutic relationship, it is crucial to establish roles. This helps both the client and the nurse understand their responsibilities, boundaries, and expectations within the therapeutic process. Choice A is more focused on the working phase where strategies and interventions are discussed. Choice C is more suitable for the working phase where specific techniques are usually introduced. Choice D is also more relevant to the working phase as it involves discussing practical resources for implementation in daily life.
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