a nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets and has a respiratory rate of 10min after secur
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets and has a respiratory rate of 10/min. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (choice A) is important but not the next immediate action. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (choice C) is important but not the priority at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions (choice D) is not the priority action in this scenario.

2. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of benzodiazepine overdose, such as diazepam ingestion, flumazenil is the antidote. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to administer flumazenil to the client. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (Choice A) is important but not the immediate priority. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (Choice C) is important but not the next immediate action. Initiating seizure precautions (Choice D) is not the priority as the client's airway has already been secured.

3. A healthcare provider is educating a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus about managing blood glucose levels. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because consuming more simple carbohydrates when blood glucose levels are low can cause a rapid spike in blood sugar levels, leading to potential complications. Clients with type 2 diabetes should eat complex carbohydrates or foods that help stabilize blood sugar levels when experiencing hypoglycemia. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate understanding of monitoring blood glucose levels regularly, not stopping insulin without consulting a healthcare provider, and adhering to insulin therapy even when feeling well, which are all appropriate actions for managing diabetes.

4. Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (B), sodium levels (C), or calcium levels (D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood type and Rh factor. This action is crucial to ensure that the correct blood is administered, matching the client's blood type and Rh factor, which helps prevent transfusion reactions. Priming the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice A) is not directly related to ensuring the correct blood product is administered. Administering the blood over 8 hours (Choice C) is not the standard practice for packed RBCs, which are usually given over a shorter period. Using a 22-gauge needle for venous access (Choice D) is not specific to the preparation for administering packed RBCs.

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