Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Platelets
• C. aPTT
• D. INR

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT. Monitoring the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is crucial when a client is receiving heparin therapy. The aPTT reflects the clotting time and helps assess the effectiveness of heparin in preventing clot formation. Keeping the aPTT within the therapeutic range ensures that the medication is working optimally. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, platelets, and INR are not direct indicators of heparin's effectiveness or therapeutic range.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a child who is being treated for bacterial pneumonia. The provider notes an increase in the child's glucose level. The provider should identify this finding as an adverse effect of which of the following medications?

• A. Methylprednisolone.
• B. Ondansetron.
• C. Guaifenesin.
• D. Amoxicillin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct. Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, can lead to increased glucose levels as an adverse effect. Ondansetron is an antiemetic and does not typically cause elevated glucose levels. Guaifenesin is an expectorant and is not associated with raising glucose levels. Amoxicillin is an antibiotic and does not affect glucose levels.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings is a priority for the nurse to report?

• A. Low back pain
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Flushed skin
• D. Headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. Tachycardia can indicate a hemolytic transfusion reaction, a severe and life-threatening complication of blood transfusion. The nurse should report tachycardia immediately to prevent further complications. Low back pain, flushed skin, and headache are also important to monitor during a blood transfusion, but they are not as indicative of a severe transfusion reaction as tachycardia.

4. A client who is at 10 weeks of gestation and experiencing nausea and vomiting is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. You should eat crackers before getting out of bed.
• B. You should drink ginger ale with your meals.
• C. You should lie down for 30 minutes after eating.
• D. You should avoid eating between meals.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should eat crackers before getting out of bed.' Eating crackers before getting out of bed can help reduce nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This recommendation helps in stabilizing blood sugar levels before fully waking up. Choice B is incorrect because ginger ale may exacerbate nausea due to its carbonation. Choice C is incorrect as lying down after eating can worsen symptoms of nausea. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding eating between meals can lead to low blood sugar levels, worsening nausea and vomiting.

5. A client is 2 days postoperative following a hip replacement surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 88/min
• B. Redness and warmth in the calf
• C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
• D. Heart rate of 96/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Redness and warmth in the calf can indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a serious complication following hip replacement surgery. It is crucial to report this finding promptly for further evaluation and intervention. The other options, heart rates of 88/min and 96/min, are within normal limits for an adult and may not require immediate reporting. A urine output of 30 mL/hr is concerning for decreased kidney perfusion, but the priority in this case is the potential DVT due to its severe implications.

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