Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Platelets
• C. aPTT
• D. INR

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT. Monitoring the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is crucial when a client is receiving heparin therapy. The aPTT reflects the clotting time and helps assess the effectiveness of heparin in preventing clot formation. Keeping the aPTT within the therapeutic range ensures that the medication is working optimally. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, platelets, and INR are not direct indicators of heparin's effectiveness or therapeutic range.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased urine output is a key finding in clients with diabetes insipidus due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone. Weight gain (choice A) is not expected in diabetes insipidus as it is a condition characterized by excessive thirst and urination leading to fluid loss. Bradycardia (choice C) and hyperactive bowel sounds (choice D) are not typically associated with diabetes insipidus.

3. A nurse is reviewing the facility's safety protocols concerning newborn abduction with the parent of a newborn. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Staff will apply the identification band after the first bath.
• B. I will not make public announcements about my baby's birth.
• C. I can remove my baby's identification band as long as they are in my room.
• D. I can leave my baby in my room while walking in the hallway.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Not making public announcements about the baby's birth is crucial in preventing newborn abduction as it avoids exposing personal information. Choice A is incorrect because the identification band should be applied immediately after birth, not after the first bath. Choice C is incorrect as the baby's identification band should never be removed by the parent. Choice D is incorrect as parents should not leave their baby unattended in the room while they are outside the room.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Serum sodium.
• B. Serum glucose.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Serum calcium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, meaning it can lead to potassium loss in the body. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not directly affect sodium, glucose, or calcium levels in the same way it impacts potassium levels.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?

• A. Calcium level of 9.0 mg/dL
• B. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• C. Respiratory rate of 18/min
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched sound that indicates airway obstruction and is the priority finding to report following a thyroidectomy. In this situation, airway compromise is a critical concern that requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. While calcium level (Choice A) and serum sodium level (Choice B) are important assessments post-thyroidectomy, they do not represent an immediate threat to the client's airway. A respiratory rate of 18/min (Choice C) falls within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate risk to the client's airway compared to the presence of stridor.

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