a nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for furosemide which of the following instructions should the nurs
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A healthcare professional is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase intake of foods high in potassium.' Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium depletion. The healthcare professional should instruct the client to increase the intake of foods high in potassium to prevent hypokalemia, a potential side effect of Furosemide therapy. Choice A is incorrect as Furosemide is usually recommended to be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia. Choice C is unrelated to the side effects of Furosemide. Choice D, while important for overall health, is not directly related to the side effects of Furosemide.

2. A client has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia, leading to a decreased heart rate. Monitoring heart rate regularly is essential to detect any significant decreases promptly and seek medical attention. While choices A, C, and D may be relevant to the client's overall health, monitoring heart rate is the priority instruction due to the nature of Atenolol's effects. Taking the medication in the morning can be individualized based on the client's needs and preferences. Avoiding foods high in potassium and increasing fluid intake are generally beneficial but not directly related to managing the side effects of Atenolol.

3. A client is taking Sucralfate PO for Peptic Ulcer Disease and has a new prescription for phenytoin to control seizures. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sucralfate can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin. To prevent this interaction, the client should allow a 2-hour interval between taking sucralfate and phenytoin. This timing helps to ensure adequate absorption and effectiveness of both medications without compromising therapeutic outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking an antacid with sucralfate, taking sucralfate with a glass of milk, and chewing sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing do not address the need for a 2-hour interval between these medications to prevent interference with phenytoin absorption.

4. When caring for a school-age child with a new prescription for Atomoxetine, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Liver damage. Atomoxetine can lead to liver damage as an adverse effect. Symptoms of liver damage include jaundice, upper abdominal tenderness, dark urine, and elevated liver enzymes. Monitoring for these signs is crucial when a child is on this medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Atomoxetine is not known to cause kidney toxicity, seizure activity, or adrenal insufficiency as primary adverse effects.

5. What is an expected outcome for Lithium use in patients with bipolar disorder?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased incidence of acute manic episodes. Lithium is commonly used to treat bipolar disorder by helping to stabilize mood and reduce the intensity and frequency of manic episodes. This leads to better overall management of the disorder. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lithium is not known to reduce the risk of myocardial infarction, GI ulcers, or respiratory distress in patients with bipolar disorder.

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