ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A healthcare professional is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?
- A. Take the medication with breakfast.
- B. Increase intake of foods high in potassium.
- C. Avoid prolonged sun exposure.
- D. Limit sodium intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase intake of foods high in potassium.' Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium depletion. The healthcare professional should instruct the client to increase the intake of foods high in potassium to prevent hypokalemia, a potential side effect of Furosemide therapy. Choice A is incorrect as Furosemide is usually recommended to be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia. Choice C is unrelated to the side effects of Furosemide. Choice D, while important for overall health, is not directly related to the side effects of Furosemide.
2. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of tendon dysfunction?
- A. Digitalis
- B. Niacin
- C. Tetracycline
- D. Fluoroquinolones
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Fluoroquinolones are known to be associated with tendon dysfunction or rupture. These drugs can weaken the tendons, leading to potential issues such as tendonitis or even tendon rupture. It is essential for healthcare providers to be cautious when prescribing fluoroquinolones, especially in patients who may be at higher risk for tendon-related complications.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Haloperidol 2 mg PO every 12 hr. The available dosage is haloperidol 1 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer?
- A. 1 tablet
- B. 2 tablets
- C. 3 tablets
- D. 4 tablets
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To determine the number of tablets needed, divide the desired dose by the dose per tablet. In this case, (2 mg / 1 mg/tablet) = 2 tablets required to administer the prescribed dose of Haloperidol.
4. A client has a new prescription for Lithium Carbonate. When teaching the client about ways to prevent Lithium toxicity, the client should be advised to do which of the following?
- A. Avoid using acetaminophen for headaches.
- B. Restrict intake of foods rich in sodium.
- C. Decrease fluid intake to less than 1,500 mL daily.
- D. Limit aerobic activity in hot weather.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to limit aerobic activity in hot weather. Aerobic activity in hot weather can lead to excessive sweating, potentially causing sodium and water depletion, which can increase the risk of Lithium toxicity. It is important for clients taking Lithium to maintain adequate hydration and sodium levels to prevent toxicity. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Avoiding acetaminophen for headaches is not directly related to Lithium toxicity. Restricting intake of foods rich in sodium is not recommended because adequate sodium levels are necessary to prevent Lithium toxicity. Decreasing fluid intake to less than 1,500 mL daily is also not advisable as adequate hydration is important to prevent Lithium toxicity.
5. A client is starting therapy with docetaxel. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Flushing
- B. Dyspnea
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Tinnitus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea. The nurse should instruct the client to report dyspnea because it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a serious adverse effect of docetaxel. Dyspnea may be a sign of a potentially life-threatening condition that the healthcare provider needs to address promptly. Flushing (Choice A) is not typically associated with docetaxel therapy. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) is also not a common side effect of docetaxel. Tinnitus (Choice D) is not a usual finding with docetaxel and is not a priority over potential pulmonary toxicity indicated by dyspnea.
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