a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for nrtis for treatment of hiv which of the following statements should the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test

1. A client receives a new prescription for NRTIs for HIV treatment. Which statement should the nurse include during teaching about these medications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: NRTIs inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, essential for HIV replication. By preventing this process, viral replication is hindered, ultimately reducing the viral load in the body. Option A correctly explains the mechanism of action of NRTIs in treating HIV infection. Choices B, C, and D describe mechanisms of action that do not align with how NRTIs work in HIV treatment. B is incorrect because NRTIs do not target protein synthesis within the HIV cell. C is incorrect as NRTIs do not affect the cell wall of the HIV virus. D is incorrect because NRTIs do not block HIV entry into cells.

2. A client has a new prescription for Clozapine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clozapine has a risk for fatal agranulocytosis, making weekly monitoring of the client's white blood cell (WBC) count essential to detect any potential issues early. This monitoring helps in managing the risk and ensuring the client's safety while on clozapine.

3. A client has a new prescription for Ranitidine to treat peptic ulcer disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include for a client prescribed Ranitidine to treat peptic ulcer disease is to avoid smoking while taking the medication. Smoking can interfere with the effectiveness of ranitidine and worsen ulcer symptoms. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to abstain from smoking to ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Ranitidine with or without food does not significantly affect its effectiveness, there is no specific need to increase intake of dairy products, and expecting a yellow tinge to the skin is not a common side effect associated with Ranitidine.

4. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function and potential worsening heart failure. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications. Weight loss, while significant, may be expected with diuretic use. A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is within normal range and can be managed. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is slightly low but not an immediate concern.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who reports urinary incontinence and asks about a prescription for Oxybutynin. The provider should recognize that Oxybutynin is contraindicated in the presence of which of the following conditions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication that can increase intraocular pressure. It is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma, as it can worsen the condition. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure, and using Oxybutynin can further elevate this pressure, potentially leading to serious complications such as vision impairment or damage to the optic nerve. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as bursitis, sinusitis, and depression are not contraindications for Oxybutynin use. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Glaucoma.

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