ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client in an acute mental health facility is experiencing withdrawal from Opioid use and has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. Administer the clonidine on the prescribed schedule.
- B. Provide ice chips at the client's bedside.
- C. Educate the client on the effects of clonidine.
- D. Obtain baseline vital signs.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain baseline vital signs. This step is crucial in assessing the client's current physiological status and establishing a reference point for monitoring the effects of Clonidine. Administering the medication, providing ice chips, and educating the client are important tasks but assessing the client's vital signs takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and well-being during withdrawal management.
2. A client has a new diagnosis of Fibromyalgia. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client?
- A. Colchicine
- B. Hydroxychloroquine
- C. Auranofin
- D. Duloxetine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Duloxetine. Duloxetine is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor commonly used to manage fibromyalgia. It helps in reducing pain and improving mood in individuals with this condition. Colchicine (Choice A) is primarily used to treat gout, while Hydroxychloroquine (Choice B) and Auranofin (Choice C) are medications used to manage conditions like rheumatoid arthritis and lupus, not fibromyalgia.
3. Which of the following is not a common effect of Midazolam?
- A. Amnesia
- B. Decreased respiratory function
- C. Anesthetic
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Midazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for its sedative, anxiolytic, and amnestic effects. While dizziness can be a side effect of Midazolam, it is not a primary or common effect. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as it deviates from the typical effects associated with Midazolam.
4. A client is taking Glipizide to treat Diabetes Mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Cholesterol level.
- B. Hematocrit.
- C. Blood glucose level.
- D. Calcium level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Blood glucose level. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level is crucial when taking Glipizide, a medication used to lower blood glucose levels in individuals with Diabetes Mellitus. By monitoring the blood glucose level, the nurse can evaluate the effectiveness of the medication in managing the client's condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of Glipizide in treating Diabetes Mellitus. Cholesterol level, hematocrit, and calcium level may be important for other aspects of the client's health but are not the primary indicators of Glipizide's effectiveness.
5. A client with Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis is receiving Streptomycin IM among other antibiotics. For which of the following manifestations should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Extremity paresthesias
- B. Urinary retention
- C. Severe constipation
- D. Complex partial seizures
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is extremity paresthesias. Streptomycin, used to treat infections like Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis, can cause paresthesias in the hands and feet as an adverse effect. Monitoring for this symptom is vital to detect and manage it promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because urinary retention, severe constipation, and complex partial seizures are not commonly associated adverse effects of Streptomycin.
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