Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take this medication with food
• B. I should report a cough to my provider
• C. I should expect to have facial swelling when taking this medication
• D. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Reporting a cough is crucial when taking lisinopril as it can be a sign of a serious side effect, such as angioedema or cough associated with ACE inhibitors. Option A is incorrect because lisinopril can be taken with or without food. Option C is incorrect as facial swelling is not an expected side effect of lisinopril. Option D is incorrect because lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia, so increasing potassium-rich foods without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous.

2. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being cared for by a nurse. What is the most appropriate action to improve the patient's oxygenation?

• A. Encourage the patient to use incentive spirometry.
• B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula as prescribed.
• C. Assist the patient with coughing and deep breathing exercises.
• D. Position the patient in a high Fowler's position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen via nasal cannula as prescribed is the most appropriate action to improve the patient's oxygenation in COPD. Oxygen therapy helps maintain adequate oxygen levels in the blood, which is crucial for managing COPD. Encouraging the use of incentive spirometry, assisting with coughing and deep breathing exercises, and positioning the patient in high Fowler's position are all beneficial interventions, but administering oxygen is the priority for immediate oxygenation support in COPD.

3. When a patient refuses to remove their religious jewelry before surgery, what is the best response for the nurse preparing for the procedure?

• A. Proceed with the surgery and document the refusal.
• B. Ask the patient for permission to secure the jewelry safely.
• C. Tape the jewelry to the patient's body during surgery.
• D. Tell the patient they must remove the jewelry for safety reasons.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to ask the patient for permission to secure the jewelry safely. Hospital policy typically requires jewelry to be secured or removed to prevent interference during surgery. Proceeding with the surgery without addressing the issue or taping the jewelry to the patient's body are not safe practices and can lead to complications during the procedure. Directing the patient to remove the jewelry without exploring alternative solutions is not patient-centered care and may create unnecessary tension.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has osteomyelitis and a prescription for gentamicin IV every 8 hours. Which of the following serum laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider before administering the gentamicin?

• A. Hematocrit 45%
• B. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• C. Creatinine 2.4 mg/dL
• D. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates potential kidney dysfunction, which is crucial when administering gentamicin as it can be nephrotoxic. Reporting a high creatinine level to the provider is essential to prevent further kidney damage. Choice A (Hematocrit 45%) is within the normal range and not directly related to gentamicin administration. Choice B (Sodium 140 mEq/L) and Choice D (Potassium 4.0 mEq/L) are also within normal limits and do not directly impact the administration of gentamicin.

5. A nurse on a rehabilitation unit is creating a plan of care for a newly admitted client who has difficulty swallowing following a stroke. Which of the following inter-professional team members should the nurse anticipate consulting regarding the client's condition?

• A. Speech-language pathologist
• B. Occupational therapist
• C. Dietitian
• D. Pharmacy technician

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Speech-language pathologist. A speech-language pathologist specializes in evaluating and treating swallowing difficulties, known as dysphagia, which commonly occurs following a stroke. They are experts in developing strategies to help individuals improve their ability to swallow safely. Occupational therapists (B) focus on helping individuals regain independence in activities of daily living, not specifically addressing swallowing concerns. Dietitians (C) primarily work on developing appropriate nutrition plans but may not directly address swallowing issues. Pharmacy technicians (D) assist pharmacists in dispensing medications and are not directly involved in managing swallowing difficulties.

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