ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is teaching an older adult client who has left-sided weakness about cane use. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Hold the cane with your left hand
- B. Move the cane forward 18 inches with each step
- C. When walking, move your left foot forward first
- D. Keep your elbow straight when you hold the cane
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with left-sided weakness using a cane is to move the left foot forward first. This technique helps improve stability and safety by ensuring weight-bearing on the stronger side while providing support with the cane. Choice A is incorrect because the cane should be held on the stronger side, which is the right side in this case. Choice B is incorrect as the recommended distance to move the cane forward with each step is about 6 inches, not 18 inches. Choice D is incorrect as it is essential to maintain a slight bend in the elbow while using the cane to absorb shock and provide flexibility.
2. What is the most appropriate method for preventing catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?
- A. Insert a urinary catheter using clean gloves.
- B. Limit the duration of catheter use.
- C. Use a smaller size catheter to prevent trauma.
- D. Change the catheter tubing every 24 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit the duration of catheter use. Limiting the duration of catheterization is a crucial method for preventing catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs). Prolonged catheter use increases the risk of introducing pathogens into the urinary tract, leading to infections. Using clean gloves for insertion (choice A) is important for preventing contamination but does not address the main cause of CAUTIs. Using a smaller size catheter (choice C) may help reduce trauma but does not directly prevent infections. Changing the catheter tubing every 24 hours (choice D) is not necessary unless clinically indicated, and it is not the most effective method for preventing CAUTIs.
3. A health care provider asks the nurse to administer a medication with a dosage significantly higher than usual. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer the medication as ordered.
- B. Question the provider and verify the dose.
- C. Administer half the dosage as a precaution.
- D. Refuse to administer the medication without clarification.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a health care provider orders a medication with a dosage significantly higher than usual, the nurse's initial action should be to question the provider and verify the dose. This is crucial to ensure patient safety and prevent medication errors. Administering the medication as ordered (Choice A) without clarification could potentially harm the patient if there was an error in the prescription. Administering half the dosage as a precaution (Choice C) is not a safe practice as it deviates from the prescribed order. Refusing to administer the medication without clarification (Choice D) is important, but the first step should be to seek clarification from the provider to prevent any unnecessary delays in patient care.
4. A patient with COPD is admitted with shortness of breath and a productive cough. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen at 4 L/min via nasal cannula
- B. Encourage the patient to cough and deep breathe
- C. Place the patient in a high-Fowler’s position
- D. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Placing the patient in a high-Fowler’s position should be implemented first. This intervention helps improve lung expansion, making it easier for the patient to breathe. Elevating the head of the bed reduces the work of breathing and can alleviate symptoms of respiratory distress. Administering oxygen, encouraging coughing and deep breathing, and administering a bronchodilator are important interventions in the care of a patient with COPD, but positioning the patient for optimal lung expansion takes precedence in this scenario.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client 15 minutes after administering morphine sulfate 2 mg via IV push. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Drowsy but responsive when her name is called
- B. SaO2 94%
- C. Respiratory rate 8/min
- D. Pain level of 6 on a scale from 0 to 10
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8/min is a significant adverse effect of morphine that indicates respiratory depression, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The client may not be effectively ventilating, leading to hypoxia and respiratory acidosis. Option A is less concerning as being drowsy but responsive is a common side effect of morphine. Option B indicates decreased oxygen saturation, which is also a concern but not as severe as respiratory depression. Option D is important but not as critical as the potential respiratory compromise indicated by the low respiratory rate.
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