ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client has been prescribed Alendronate for osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water after getting up in the morning.
- B. Remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication.
- C. Chew the tablet and mix it with applesauce if swallowing is difficult.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime to minimize the chance of esophageal irritation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Alendronate for osteoporosis is to take the medication with a full glass of water after getting up in the morning. This is important to reduce the risk of esophageal irritation. Choice B is also correct as remaining upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication helps prevent esophageal irritation and ensures proper absorption. Choice C is incorrect because Alendronate tablets should not be chewed or mixed with any other substance. Choice D is incorrect as taking the medication at bedtime increases the risk of esophageal irritation due to lying down after ingestion.
2. A client has a new prescription for Omeprazole. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication before meals.
- B. Take this medication with food.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime.
- D. Take this medication with antacids.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take this medication before meals.' Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that is most effective in reducing stomach acid production when taken before meals. This timing helps the medication work optimally by inhibiting acid secretion that occurs in response to food intake. Choice B ('Take this medication with food') is incorrect because Omeprazole should be taken before meals. Choice C ('Take this medication at bedtime') is incorrect as the optimal timing is before meals, not at bedtime. Choice D ('Take this medication with antacids') is incorrect because Omeprazole should not be taken with antacids as they can interfere with its absorption.
3. At what amount does Acetaminophen stop effectively controlling pain?
- A. Over 1,000 mg
- B. 750 mg
- C. Over 1,500 mg
- D. 150 mg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Acetaminophen is known to lose its effectiveness in controlling pain beyond a dosage of 1,000 mg. Taking more than 1,000 mg will not provide additional pain relief but can increase the risk of adverse effects. Choice B (750 mg) is incorrect because this amount is within the typical recommended dose range for Acetaminophen. Choice C (Over 1,500 mg) is incorrect as it suggests a higher dose than the point at which Acetaminophen starts to lose its effectiveness. Choice D (150 mg) is too low a dose to effectively control pain for most adults.
4. A client is withdrawing from alcohol and has a new prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following information should be included in the teaching?
- A. Increases the risk for seizure activity.
- B. Provides a form of aversion therapy.
- C. Decreases cravings.
- D. Results in mild hypertension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreases cravings.' Propranolol is commonly used as an adjunct medication during alcohol withdrawal to help reduce cravings for alcohol. It does not increase the risk for seizure activity, provide aversion therapy, or result in mild hypertension. By decreasing cravings, Propranolol can support the client in managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms and promoting abstinence. Therefore, it is important to educate the client on how Propranolol can help them cope with alcohol cravings effectively.
5. While teaching a client starting therapy with rituximab, which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Dizziness
- B. Fever
- C. Urinary frequency
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever. The nurse should instruct the client to report fever as it can be an indication of an infection, which is a potential complication of rituximab therapy. Monitoring for fever is crucial to promptly address any signs of infection and ensure the client's safety during treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with rituximab therapy and are less likely to be directly related to a serious complication requiring immediate attention.
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